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Control of Aircraft 17

Air Traffic Advisory Service

17.43Establishment and Objective. The Air Traffic Advisory Service is defined as a service provided within advisory airspace (class F) to ensure separation between aircraft operating on IFR flight plans. In practice, this service is established in response to a request where the establishment of a full ATC service has not been determined. In other words, it is a temporary arrangement pending a decision on whether or not a full ATC service is required. The objective is to make information on collision hazards more effective than it would be in the provision of a flight information service only. It is provided to IFR flights in advisory airspace or on advisory routes.

17.44Operation. The Air Traffic Advisory Service does not afford the degree of safety and does not assume the same responsibilities as a full ATC service. To this end clearances are not issued and only advice or suggestions are offered by the ATCOs. An IFR flight electing to use the service is expected to comply with the same procedures as would be in force in CAS, except that Flight Plan changes are not subject to clearance. All IFR flights flying in class F airspace are required to file Flight Plans. Traffic electing to use the advisory service will receive an ‘acknowledgement’ of the submission of the Flight Plans only. IFR flights crossing an advisory route are required to do so at ‘right angles’ to the route direction at a level appropriate to the semi-circular rule.

Aircraft Emergencies

17.45 Use of SSR. Use of the reserved SSR codes is the most expeditious means of indicating a situation where an aircraft requires assistance. Clearly, the aircraft must be flying in an area where radar is used for ATC, and in this may be a factor of altitude. Even outside of radar control areas there are military facilities and mobile units that can interrogate and receive SSR information which can assist the alerting service to provide the necessary assistance. The reserved codes are:

• Mode A code 7700

Emergency

Mode A code 7600

Radio failure

Mode A code 7500

Unlawful Interference

Additionally:

• Mode A code 7000 Conspicuity code for an aircraft operating in an area where a radar service is available but the aircraft is not in receipt of the service (commonly referred to as VFR conspicuity)

• Mode A code 2000 An aircraft is operating in an area where a radar service is not available but will be entering an area where a radar service is available and will be requesting that service (this is used for eastbound NAT traffic east of 30W that intend entering the Scottish UIR).

17.46 Aircraft Already Identified. If a pilot is already in receipt of a radar service and has been identified by the use of a discrete SSR code, selection of a reserved code to indicate a state of emergency may delay the application of the assistance. In this case the allocated Mode A code should be retained.

Control of Aircraft 17

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17 Control of Aircraft

17.47ATC Contact in an Emergency. In an emergency pilots can expect to be contacted by ATC on 121.5 MHz or, as a back-up, on the inter-pilot air-to-air frequency 123.45 MHz.

17.48Emergency Descent. If an aircraft suffers a pressurization failure at altitude, the rules require the aircraft to be descended to an altitude where oxygen in the air supports life. In the event, ATC will broadcast a warning to aircraft in the vicinity of a descending aircraft. The pilot of the descending aircraft should attempt to broadcast the aircraft altitude at intervals to assist other aircraft to avoid a collision.

17.49Fuel Jettison. In certain circumstances, it may be necessary to reduce the mass of the aircraft to maximum landing mass as soon as possible by dumping as much fuel as is required. All aircraft which have a maximum take-off mass greater than the maximum landing mass are required to have a fuel jettison system. If the aircraft is flying in CAS, before commencing fuel jettison, the controlling ATCU is to be informed. The route over which the fuel is to be jettisoned should be clear of towns, preferably over water and clear of areas where thunderstorm activity has been reported or is expected. The level at which the jettison takes place is to be not lower than 6000 ft. This will allow the fuel in aerosol form to evaporate before reaching the ground. The ATCU is to be advised of the duration of the operation.

17.50Strayed and Unidentified Aircraft. A strayed aircraft is one that has deviated significantly from its intended track or reports that it is lost, whereas an unidentified aircraft is one of which the ATCU is aware but the identity is not known.

Aircraft of Control 17

340

Questions

Questions

1.In what class of airspace is an advisory service provided for participating IFR traffic and an FIS for all other traffic?

a.A

b.D

c.C

d.F

2.List the services that must be provided in an FIR:

a.FIS only.

b.FIS, advisory ATC, ATC.

c.FIS, aerodrome control.

d.FIS, alerting service.

3.An aircraft has been cleared to land and fails to do so within 5 minutes of the ETA of landing and communications have not been re-established with the aircraft. What phase of the Alerting Service will be declared?

a.DETRESFA.

b.INCERFA.

c.ALERFA.

d.EMERGFA.

4.When must QNH be passed to an aircraft prior to take-off?

a.In the taxi clearance.

b.On engine start-up request.

c.On first contact with ATC.

d.Just prior to take-off.

5.The necessary separation minima for controlled traffic in the vicinity of an aerodrome may be reduced when:

a.the commander of the aircraft requests reduced separation.

b.the aerodrome controller has the involved aircraft in sight.

c.the commander in the following aircraft has the preceding aircraft in sight and is able to maintain own separation.

d.directed by the aerodrome controller.

6.At commencement of final approach, if the approach controller has wind component information, what change in crosswind component change would be passed to the pilot?

a.10 kt.

b.8 kt.

c.3 kt.

d.5 kt.

17

Questions 17

341

17 Questions

 

7.

For IFR departures, 1 minute separation can be applied if the aircraft fly on

 

 

diverging tracks immediately after take-off of at least:

 

 

a.

45°.

 

 

b.

15°.

 

 

c.

30°.

 

 

d.

2°.

 

8.

During an approach, when can normal separation be reduced?

 

 

a.

When the controller has both aircraft in sight.

 

 

b.

When the following aircraft has the preceding in sight and can maintain it.

 

 

c.

When both pilots request it.

 

 

d.

When both aircraft are under radar control.

 

9.

For parallel runway operations, the missed approach tracks must diverge by:

 

 

a.

15°.

 

 

b.

30°.

 

 

c.

45°.

 

 

d.

20°.

 

10.

When the air traffic controller has wind information as components at the start of

 

 

final approach, significant changes in the average surface wind direction and speed

 

 

must be given to the pilot. The significant change of the average tailwind is:

 

 

a.

5 kt.

 

 

b.

2 kt.

 

 

c.

4 kt.

 

 

d.

3 kt.

 

 

 

 

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11.

According to international agreements the wind direction, in degrees magnetic

 

 

 

converted with local magnetic variation from the true wind direction must be

Questions

 

 

passed to the pilot of an aircraft:

 

 

 

 

a.

before entering the traffic pattern or commencing an approach to landing,

 

 

 

and prior to taxiing for take-off.

 

 

b.

in anticipation of the upper wind for areas North of 60°N and South of 60°S.

 

 

c.

when an aircraft is requested by the meteorological office or on specified

 

 

 

points to give a AIREP.

 

 

d.

when the local variation is greater than 10° East or West.

 

12.

What is the closest to touchdown that a radar controller can request a change of

 

 

speed to an aircraft on final approach?

 

 

a.

5 NM.

 

 

b.

3 NM.

 

 

c.

2 NM.

 

 

d.

4 NM.

 

13.

What defines a controlled aerodrome?

 

 

a.

It must be located within a CTR.

 

 

b.

It must have a control tower giving an ATC service.

 

 

c.

It must have a control tower and be in a CTR.

 

 

d.

It must be in controlled airspace.

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Questions 17

14.

What is the primary use for radar in ATC?

 

 

a.

Separation.

 

 

b.

Helping when aircraft communications have failed.

 

 

c.

To assist pilots with technical problems.

 

 

d.

To assist pilots of aircraft that are lost.

 

15.

When must the SSR transponder be operated?

 

 

a.

Always.

 

 

b.

At all times unless otherwise instructed by ATC.

 

 

c.

At the pilot’s discretion regardless of ATC instructions.

 

 

d.

Mode A always; Mode C at pilot’s discretion.

 

16.

What is the minimum distance from threshold that a controller must have issued

 

 

clearance to land by, for a non-precision approach?

 

 

a.

5 NM.

 

 

b.

2 NM.

 

 

c.

3 NM.

 

 

d.

10 NM.

 

17.

The maximum speed change that may be required during a radar approach is:

 

 

a.

± 40 kt.

 

 

b.

± 5 kt.

 

 

c.

± 10 kt.

 

 

d.

± 20 kt.

 

18.

What is the distance on final approach within which the controller should suggest

 

 

that the aircraft executes a missed approach if the aircraft either is lost from the

 

 

17

 

radar for a significant time, or the identity of the aircraft is in doubt?

 

 

 

a.

1 NM.

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b.

2 NM.

 

 

c.

3 NM.

 

 

d.

4 NM.

 

19.

What is the closest point to the threshold that a radar controller may request a

 

 

speed change?

 

 

a.

1 NM.

 

 

b.

2 NM.

 

 

c.

3 NM.

 

 

d.

4 NM.

 

20.

An aircraft in receipt of a radar service is told to “resume own navigation”. What

 

 

does this mean?

 

 

a.

The pilot is responsible for own navigation.

 

 

b.

Radar vectoring is terminated.

 

 

c.

The pilot should contact next ATC unit.

 

 

d.

The pilot should contact the current ATC unit.

 

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17 Questions

21.

What is standard radar separation?

 

 

a.

5 NM.

 

 

b.

3 NM.

 

 

c.

10 NM.

 

 

d.

2.5 NM.

22.

By how much will a radar controller turn an aircraft to identify that aircraft on the

 

 

radar?

 

 

 

a.

45°.

 

 

b.

15°.

 

 

c.

30° or more.

 

 

d.

a minimum of 25°.

23.

What is the acceptable tolerance for Mode ‘C’ altitude indication (not in RVSM

 

 

airspace)?

 

 

a.

± 100 ft.

 

 

b.

± 150 ft.

 

 

c.

± 300 ft.

 

 

d.

± 200 ft.

24.

When may the pilot operate the ‘IDENT’ switch on the transponder?

 

 

a.

Only in controlled airspace.

 

 

b.

When instructed by ATC.

 

 

c.

Only in uncontrolled airspace.

 

 

d.

Only when under radar control.

 

25.

If you are given an instruction by ATC to steer heading 030, the heading is:

17

 

 

 

 

 

a.

degrees true and must be corrected for wind.

Questions

b.

degrees magnetic and must be corrected for wind.

 

 

 

 

c.

degrees true no correction to be applied.

 

 

d.

degrees magnetic no correction to be applied.

26.

When would you squawk SSR mode C?

 

 

a.

Only when directed by ATC.

 

 

b.

Always.

 

 

c.

Always in controlled airspace.

 

 

d.

Only in controlled airspace.

27.

If radar contact is lost during an approach, at what range from touchdown would

 

 

ATC order a missed approach to be flown?

 

 

a.

1 NM.

 

 

b.

2 NM.

 

 

c.

3 NM.

 

 

d.

4 NM.

344

 

 

Questions

 

17

 

28.

When is an aircraft considered to have left the allocated flight level in the descent

 

 

 

 

 

when referencing altitude to Mode C?

 

 

 

 

 

a.

Once it has descended through 100 ft.

 

 

 

 

 

b.

Once it has descended through 200 ft.

 

 

 

 

 

c.

Once it has descended through 300 ft.

 

 

 

 

 

d.

Once it has descended through 500 ft.

 

 

 

 

29.

If you are intercepted by a military aircraft, what do you set on the SSR

 

 

 

 

 

transponder?

 

 

 

 

 

a.

A/2000 + C.

 

 

 

 

 

b.

A/7500 + C.

 

 

 

 

 

c.

A/7600 + C.

 

 

 

 

 

d.

A/7700 + C.

 

 

 

 

30.

Aerodrome traffic is considered to be:

 

 

 

 

 

a.

aircraft on the movement area and flying in the vicinity.

 

 

 

 

 

b.

aircraft on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity.

 

 

 

 

 

c.

aircraft on the movement area only.

 

 

 

 

 

d.

aircraft on the manoeuvring area only.

 

 

 

 

31.

The criterion that determines the specific level occupied by an aircraft based on

 

 

 

 

 

Mode C information (except where the appropriate ATC authority specifies a lesser

 

 

 

 

 

criterion) is:

 

 

 

 

 

a.

+/- 300 ft.

 

 

 

 

 

b.

+/- 150 ft.

 

 

 

 

 

c.

+/- 250 ft.

 

 

 

 

 

d.

+/- 200 ft.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

17

 

 

 

 

 

 

32.

If approved by the authority within 40 NM of the radar transmitter, radar

 

 

 

 

 

 

Questions

 

separation can be reduced to:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

a.

5 NM.

 

 

 

 

 

b.

4.5 NM.

 

 

 

 

 

c.

4 NM.

 

 

 

 

 

d.

3 NM.

 

 

 

 

33.

How close to the boundary of a radar vectoring area can an aircraft be vectored?

 

 

 

 

 

a.

2 NM.

 

 

 

 

 

b.

2.5 NM.

 

 

 

 

 

c.

5 NM.

 

 

 

 

 

d.

3 NM.

 

 

 

 

34.

A radar controller can request an aircraft to change speed when it is on the

 

 

 

 

 

intermediate and final approach phase, except in certain conditions specified by

 

 

 

 

 

the proper ATS authority. The speed change must not be more than:

 

 

 

 

 

a.

± 15 kt.

 

 

 

 

 

b.

± 8 kt.

 

 

 

 

 

c.

± 10 kt.

 

 

 

 

 

d.

± 20 kt.

 

 

 

 

345

17 Questions

 

35.

What does the ATC term “radar contact” mean?

 

 

a.

The aircraft is identified and will receive separation from all aircraft while you

 

 

 

are communicating with this radar facility.

 

 

b.

ATC is receiving your transponder and will provide you with vectors and advice

 

 

 

concerning traffic, until you are notified that contact is lost.

 

 

c.

Your aircraft is seen and identified on the radar display and until further

 

 

 

advised a service will be provided.

 

 

d.

You will receive radar advisory concerning traffic until you are notified that

 

 

 

the contact is lost or radar service is terminated.

 

36.

The “land after” procedure may only be applied during:

 

 

a.

daylight hours.

 

 

b.

night or day.

 

 

c.

VMC.

 

 

d.

IMC.

 

37.

An aircraft making a radar approach must be told to make a missed approach,

 

 

when no landing clearance has been received from the non-radar traffic controller,

 

 

when the aircraft is at a distance of:

 

 

a.

5 NM from the touchdown.

 

 

b.

1.5 NM from the touchdown.

 

 

c.

4 NM from the touchdown.

 

 

d.

2 NM from the touchdown.

 

38.

A radar controller cannot ask a pilot to change speed if the aircraft is within:

 

 

a.

4 NM from the threshold on final approach.

 

 

b.

5 NM from the threshold on final approach.

17

 

 

c.

2 NM from the threshold on final approach.

 

 

 

 

d.

3 NM from the threshold on final approach.

Questions

 

39.

When an aircraft’s SSR transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure

 

 

 

and repair is not possible:

 

 

a.

the pilot must indicate the failure in the fight plan, after which ATC will

 

 

 

approve the operation of the aircraft without SSR.

 

 

b.

if required by ATC, departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can

 

 

 

be effected will be approved.

 

 

c.

the pilot will not be allowed to commence the flight.

 

 

d.

the flight can only continue in the most direct manner.

 

40.

Using SSR, a method by which a radar controller may identify an aircraft is to ask

 

 

the pilot to:

 

 

a.

set a specific SSR Code.

 

 

b.

switch from “off” to “on”.

 

 

c.

switch to “off”.

 

 

d.

switch to “on”.

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Questions 17

Questions 17

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