- •Textbook Series
- •Contents
- •1 Definitions
- •Introduction
- •Abbreviations
- •Definitions
- •2 International Agreements and Organizations
- •The Chicago Convention
- •International Law
- •Commercial Considerations
- •Customs and Excise, and Immigration
- •International Obligations of Contracted States
- •Duties of ICAO Member States
- •Status of Annex Components
- •The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)
- •The Organization of ICAO
- •Regional Structure of ICAO
- •Regional Structure and Offices
- •ICAO Publications
- •Other International Agreements
- •The Conventions of Tokyo, the Hague and Montreal
- •The Warsaw Convention
- •The Rome Convention
- •IATA
- •ECAC
- •EASA
- •Eurocontrol
- •World Trade Organization
- •Geneva Convention
- •EU Regulation 261/2004
- •Questions
- •Answers
- •3 Airworthiness of Aircraft
- •Introduction
- •Airworthiness
- •Questions
- •Answers
- •4 Aircraft Nationality and Registration Marks
- •Introduction
- •Nationality and Registration Marks
- •Certification of Registration
- •Aircraft Markings
- •Classification of Aircraft
- •Questions
- •Answers
- •5 Flight Crew Licensing
- •Introduction
- •Definitions
- •General Rules Concerning Licensing
- •Licences and Ratings for Pilots
- •Multi-crew Pilot Licence (MPL)
- •Instrument Rating (Aeroplane) (IR(A))
- •Instructor and Examiner Rating
- •JAR-FCL 3 Medical Requirements
- •Pilot Proficiency
- •EASA Theoretical Knowledge Examinations
- •Questions
- •Answers
- •6 Rules of the Air
- •History
- •Applicability of the Rules of the Air
- •General Rules
- •Visual Flight Rules
- •Instrument Flight Rules
- •Semi-circular Flight Level Rules and RVSM
- •Special VFR
- •Distress and Urgency Signals
- •Restricted, Prohibited or Danger Areas
- •Signals for Aerodrome Traffic
- •Marshalling Signals
- •Flight Deck Signals
- •Questions
- •Answers
- •Instrument Procedures
- •PANS OPS
- •Instrument Departure Procedures
- •Questions
- •Answers
- •8 Approach Procedures
- •Procedure Basics
- •Approach Procedure Design
- •Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height
- •Operating Minima
- •Descent Gradients
- •Track Reversal and Racetracks
- •Missed Approach Segment and Procedure
- •Published Information
- •RNAV Approach Procedures based on VOR/DME
- •Questions
- •Answers
- •9 Circling Approach
- •Circling Approach
- •Questions
- •Answers
- •10 Holding Procedures
- •Holding Procedures
- •Entry Sectors
- •ATC Considerations
- •Obstacle Clearance
- •Questions
- •Answers
- •11 Altimeter Setting Procedure
- •Altimeter Setting Objectives
- •Transition
- •Phases of Flight
- •Questions
- •Answers
- •12 Parallel or Near-parallel Runway Operation
- •Safety
- •Runway Spacing
- •Questions
- •Answers
- •13 SSR and ACAS
- •Airborne Collision Avoidance System (ACAS)
- •Questions
- •Answers
- •14 Airspace
- •Introduction
- •Control Areas and Zones
- •Classes of Airspace
- •Required Navigation Performance (RNP)
- •Airways and ATS Routes
- •Questions
- •Answers
- •15 Air Traffic Services
- •Introduction
- •Air Traffic Control
- •ATC Clearances
- •Control of Persons and Vehicles at Aerodromes
- •The Flight Information Service
- •The Alerting Service
- •Procedures
- •Questions
- •Answers
- •16 Separation
- •Concept of Separation
- •Vertical Separation
- •Horizontal Separation
- •Radar Separation
- •Procedural Wake Turbulence Separation
- •Radar Wake Turbulence Separation
- •Visual Separation in the Vicinity of Aerodromes
- •Stacking
- •Questions
- •Answers
- •17 Control of Aircraft
- •Procedural ATC
- •Radar Control
- •Radar Identification
- •Radar Service
- •Aerodrome Control
- •Approach Control Service
- •Air Traffic Advisory Service
- •Aircraft Emergencies
- •Questions
- •Answers
- •18 Aeronautical Information Service (AIS)
- •Introduction
- •General
- •The Integrated Aeronautical Information Package
- •The Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)
- •Notices to Airmen (NOTAM)
- •SNOWTAM
- •ASHTAM
- •Aeronautical Information Circulars (AICs)
- •Pre-flight and Post-flight Information
- •Questions
- •Answers
- •Introduction
- •Aerodrome Reference Code
- •Glossary of Terms
- •Aerodrome Data
- •Runways
- •Taxiways
- •Aprons
- •Questions
- •Answers
- •Requirements
- •Visual Aids for Navigation
- •Runway Markings
- •Taxiway Markings
- •Signs
- •Markers
- •Visual Docking Guidance Systems
- •Questions
- •Answers
- •21 Aerodrome Lighting
- •Aerodrome Lights
- •Approach Lighting Systems
- •Runway Lighting
- •Taxiway Lighting
- •Questions
- •Answers
- •22 Obstacle Marking and Aerodrome Services
- •Introduction
- •Visual Aids for Denoting Obstacles
- •Visual Aids for Denoting Restricted Use Areas
- •Emergency and Other Services
- •Other Aerodrome Services
- •Questions
- •Answers
- •23 Facilitation
- •Entry and Departure of Aircraft
- •Questions
- •Answers
- •24 Search and Rescue
- •Definitions and Abbreviations
- •Establishment and Provision of SAR Service
- •Co-operation between States
- •Operating Procedures
- •Questions
- •Answers
- •25 Security
- •Introduction
- •Objectives
- •Organization
- •Preventative Security Measures
- •Management of Response to Acts of Unlawful Interference
- •Further Security Information
- •Questions
- •Answers
- •26 Aircraft Accident and Incident Investigation
- •Introduction
- •Objective of Investigation
- •Investigations
- •Serious Incidents
- •EU Considerations
- •Questions
- •Answers
- •27 Revision Questions
- •Revision Questions
- •Answers
- •EASA Specimen Examination
- •Answers to Specimen EASA Examination
- •28 Addendum – EASA Part-FCL & Part-MED
- •Chapter Five. Flight Crew Licensing
- •European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA)
- •Licences
- •Ratings
- •Certificates
- •EASA Part-MED
- •29 Index
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1. |
During a straight departure, the initial track is to be: |
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within 5° of runway centre line. |
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within 10° of runway centre line. |
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c. |
within 15° of runway centre line. |
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d. |
within 25° of runway centre line. |
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2. |
In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at DER is: |
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0 ft. |
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b. |
3.3% gradient. |
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c. |
35 ft. |
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d. |
0.8% gradient. |
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3. |
Turning departures provide track guidance within what distance of the completion |
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of turns? |
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a. |
15 km. |
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b. |
20 km. |
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c. |
10 km. |
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d. |
5 km. |
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4. |
The MSA provides 300 m obstacle clearance within how many miles radius of the |
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navigation facility at the aerodrome? |
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a. |
20 NM. |
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b. |
30 NM. |
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c. |
25 NM. |
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d. |
15 NM. |
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5. |
What does the abbreviation DER stand for? |
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a. |
Distance to end of route. |
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b. |
Departure end of route. |
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c. |
Distance to end of runway. |
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d. |
Departure end of runway. |
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6. |
What does the abbreviation OIS stand for? |
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a. |
Obstacle identification surface. |
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b. |
Obstacles in surface. |
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c. |
Obstacle identification slope. |
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d. |
Obstruction identification surface. |
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7. |
The MSA which must be established around a navigation facility used in instrument |
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procedures is in general valid within a sector of: |
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15 NM. |
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b. |
30 NM. |
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c. |
25 NM. |
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d. |
10 NM. |
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8. |
In a straight departure, what is the alignment of the initial track referenced to the |
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runway centre line? |
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Within 45°. |
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b. |
Within 12.5°. |
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c. |
Within 15°. |
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d. |
Within 30°. |
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9. |
In general, what is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument |
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procedure? |
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The availability of navigation aids. |
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Airspace restrictions. |
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c. |
The terrain surrounding the aerodrome. |
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d. |
ATC requirements. |
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10. |
When following a SID, the pilot must: |
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calculate the track required and request ATC clearance to follow it. |
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b. |
fly the heading without wind correction. |
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c. |
adjust the track specified to allow for the wind. |
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d. |
fly the heading to make good the required track allowing for the wind. |
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11. |
For an omni-directional departure, the procedure dictates that the aircraft climbs |
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on the extended centre line to a specified height before turning. What is this |
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height? |
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300 m. |
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b. |
120 m. |
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c. |
150 m. |
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d. |
250 m. |
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12. |
If the track on an instrument departure is published, the pilot is expected to: |
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correct for the known wind so as to stay within controlled airspace. |
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ask ATC for another heading to steer correcting for wind. |
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c. |
ignore the wind and proceed with a heading equal to the track. |
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d. |
ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind. |
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13. |
What is the value of PDG? |
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5% |
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b. |
3.3° |
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c. |
3.3% |
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d. |
2.5% |
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