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34. Which one of the following compounds have been
shown to have value in managing? symptoms of
jet lag?
A.
DHEA B. Garlic
C. Ginseng D. Melatonin
35. A patient with Zollinger–Ellison syndrome has
been receiving high doses of cimetidine for 7
weeks. A frequent adverse effect of cimetidine is:
A.
Agranulocytosis
B. Systemic lupus erythematosus
C. Inhibition of hepatic metabolism of other drugs
D. Antiestrogenic effects
36. Which one of the following agents is least likely
to protect the upper gastrointestinal? Tract from
ulcer formation?
A.
Antacids B. Celecoxib
C. Cimetidine D. Misoprostol
37. All of the following agents are considered close
to ideal laxatives except:
A.
Emollient laxatives
B. Bulk-forming laxatives
C. Fiber
D. Stimulant laxatives
38. Which solution is used as an astringent?
A. Strong iodine solution USP
B. Aluminium acetate topical solution USP
C. Acetic acid NE
D. Benzalkonium chloride
39. Lansoprazole would be effective in the treatment of:
A. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
B. Peptic ulcer disease
C. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
D. All of the above
40. All of the following statements about stool
softeners are true except:
A.
They can be taken with little or no water
B. There is minimal systemic absorption
C. The onset of action is usually 1–2 days
D. They are useful in patients with constipation
41. Which of the following statements adequately
describes bulk-forming laxatives?
A.
Can cause diarrhea if not taken with water
B. Are derived from polysaccharides and resemble
fiber (bran) in mechanism of action
C. Onset of action is in 4–8 hours
D. Produce much more complete evacuation of
constipation than stimulant products
42. Which of the following statements about adsorbent
drugs used for diarrhea is true?
A.
Useful for treatment of severe diarrhea
B. Very safe because not absorbed systemically
C. In general, small doses are needed to relieve
diarrhea
D. Kaolin and pectin are considered to be very
effective (category I) adsorbents
43. All of the following statements about stool
softeners are true except:
There is minimal systemic absorption
A.
B. The onset of action is usually 1–2 days
C. They are useful in patients with constipation
who have experienced an acute myocardial
infarction
D. They can be taken with little or no water
44. Which of the following is an appropriate non-
pharmacologic recommendation for patients with
gastroesophageal reux disease (GERD)?
Eat larger but fewer meals
A.
B. Avoid meals high in protein
C. Eat evening meals at least 3 hours before bed
D. Prop a patient’s head up with 2 pillows at night
45. Which of the following organisms has been
implicated as a possible cause of chronic gastritis
and peptic ulcer disease?
Campylobacter jejuni
A.
B. Escherichia coli
C. Helicobacter pylori
D. Giardia lamblia
46. As part of a comprehensive management strategy
to treat peptic ulcer disease, patients should be
encouraged to do all of the following except:
Eat only bland foods
A.
B. Decrease caffeine ingestion
C. Stop smoking
D. Avoid alcohol
Avoid the use of milk as a treatment modality
E.
47. A gastric ulcer patient requires close follow-up to
document complete ulcer healing because:
Perforation into the intestine is common
A.
B. Spontaneous healing of the ulcer may occur in
30– 50% of cases
C. There is the risk of the ulcer being cancerous
D. Weight loss may be severe in gastric ulcer
patients
48. Which of the following agents in mostuseful for
carcinoma of the liver?
Vinblastine
A.
B. Floxuridine
C. Vincristine
D. Mercaptopurine
49. Bisacodyl frequently can cause:
A. Abdominal cramps B. Constipation
C. Skin rashes D. Nausea
50. Tick the main approach of peptic ulcer treatment:
A. Neutralization of gastric acid
B. Eradication of Helicobacter pylori
C. Inhibition of gastric acid secretion
D. All of the above
51. All of the following play a role in the regulation
of Gastric acid secretion except:
Histamine B. Acetylcholine
A.
C. Serotonin D. Gastrin
Section 1 Pharmacology
119
52. …………………………. belongs to proton pump
inhibitors
A.
Pirenzepine B. Ranitidine
C. Omeprazole D. Trimethaphan
53. Which of the following is released in traumatized
tissue, causes pain and edema, and is inactivated
by angiotensin converting enzyme?
A.
Angiotensin I
B. Angiotensin II
C. Atrial natriuretic peptide
D. Bradykinin
54. Choose one drug from the following drugs which
is an agent of substitution therapy?
A.
Gastrin
B. Hydrochloric acid
C. Histamine
D. Carbonate mineral waters
55. An example of a H2-receptor antagonist is:
A.
Omeprazole B. Pirenzepine
C. Carbenoxolone D. Ranitidine
56. All drugs are proton pump inhibitors except:
A. Pantoprazole B. Omeprazole
C. Famotidine D. Rabeprazole
57. Drug ……………………. may cause reversible
gynecomastia.
A.
Omeprazole B. Pirenzepine
C. Cimetidine D. Sucralfate
58. Which drug forming a physical barrier between
HCL and pepsin:
A.
Ranitidine B. Sucralfate
C. Omeprazole D. All of these
59. Which drug from the following is an analogue of
prostaglandin E1?
A.
Misoprostol B. Sucralfate
C. Omeprazole D. B and C
60. Choose which drug not belong to an antacid
category?
A.
Misoprostol B. Maalox
C. Mylanta D. Almagel
61. Indicate the drug that causes metabolic alkalosis:
A. Sodium bicarbonate B. Cimetidine
C.
Pepto-Bismol D. Carbenoxolone
62. Which drug that causes constipation?
A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Aluminium hydroxide
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Magnesium oxide
63. All drugs stimulate appetite except:
A. Vitamins B. Bitters
C. Fepranone D. Insulin
64. Which drug is not help to intensify the
Section 1 Pharmacology
120
gastrointestinal motility:
A.
Papaverine B. Metoclopramide
C. Domperidone D. Cisapride
65. Choose an emetic drug of central action
A. Ipecacuanha derivatives
B. Promethazine
C. Tropisetron
D. Apomorphine hydrochloride
66. Tick the mechanism of metoclopramide antiemetic
action:
A.
H1 and H2-receptor blocking effect
B. M-cholino receptor stimulating effect
C. D2-dopamine and 5-HT3-serotonin receptor
blocking effect
D.
M-cholino blocking effect
67. Select the emetic agent having a reex action:
A. Ipecacuanha derivatives
B. Apomorphine hydrochloride
C. Chlorpromazine
D. Metoclopramide
68. All of the following drugs are antiemetics except:
A. Metoclopramide
B. Ondansetron
C. Chlorpromazine
D. Apomorphine hydrochloride
69. Indicate an antiemetic agent which is related to
neuroleptics:
A.
Metoclopramide B. Nabilone
C. Tropisetron D.. Prochlorperazine
70. All of these drugs reduce intestinal peristalsis
except:
A.
Loperamide
B. Cisapride
C. Methyl cellulose
D. Magnesium aluminium silicate
71. Indicate the laxative drug belonging to osmotic
laxatives:
A.
Docusate sodium B. Bisacodyl
C. Phenolphthalein D. Sodium phosphate
72. Choose the drug irritating the gut and causing
increased peristalsis:
A.
Phenolphthalein B. Methyl cellulose
C. Proserine D. Mineral oil
73. Choose drug from the following drugs do not have
any role in stimulation of bile production and bile
secretion.
A.
Chenodiol B. Coenzyme
C. Oxamphetamine D. Both A and B
74. Inhibits of peristalsis is done by
A. Castor oil B. Bisacodyl
C.
Loperamide D. Sorbitol
75. Choose the drug affecting the biliary system and
relaxing Oddy sphincter:
A.
Cholosas B. Oxaphenamide
C. No-spa D. Cholenzym
76. Class of antiulcer which help to eradicate
Helicobacter pylori as well as cure associated
gastritis:
A. Sucralfate (Carafate)
B. Colloidal bismuth
C. H2 blockers
D. Anticholinergic agents
77. Antacid: Melt-alkali syndrome:
A. Aluminium hydroxide
B. Magnesium hydroxide
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Sodium bicarbonate
78. Antacid: Effective, but associated with systemic
alkalosis
Calcium carbonate
A.
B. Sodium bicarbonate
C. Magnesium hydroxide
D. Aluminium hydroxide
79. Antacid: Most likely to cause systemic phosphate
depletion:
Sodium bicarbonate
A.
C. Calcium carbonate
C. Magnesium hydroxide
D. Aluminium hydroxide
80. Antacid therapy relieves symptoms:
A. Rapidly
B. By complete neutralisation of gastric acid
By eradicating Helicobacter pylori
C.
Indefinitely
D.
81. Monotherapy effectiveness in eradication of
H. pylori-- bismuth compounds
5% B. 20%
A.
C. 50% D. 90%
82. Side effect prole-- antiulcer medication: Urinary
retention, blurred vision, xerostromia.
Ranitidine (Zantac)
A.
B. Atropine
C. Nifedipine (Procardia, Adalat)
D. Sucralfate (Carafate)
83. Most widely used antacid in treating ulcer disease:
A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Magnesium hydroxide
C. Aluminium hydroxide
D. Aluminium hydroxide + magnesium hydroxide
84. Effective ulcer treatment which works without
any action on gastric acid secretion is:
Lactulose
A.
B. Aluminium hydroxide
C. Sucralfate
D. Lactitol magnesium trisilicate
85. The best duration of treatment to ensure 90%
duodenal ulcer healing with H2 receptor
antagonist is: A1
1 week B. 2 weeks
A.
C. 4 weeks D. 8 weeks
86. Antacid: Loose stools:
A. Aluminum hydroxide
B. Magnesium hydroxide
C. Both A and B
D. Neither
87. Vitamins…………………. is not stored in the Liver.
A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin D
88. All are play role in the development of ascites
except:
Increased level of aldosterone
A.
B. Increased blood pressure
C. Low amount of albumin
D. Elevated levels of angiotensin I
89. Choose histamine blocker drug which decreases
the level of gastric acid?
Omeprazole
A.
B. Metoclopramide
C. Cimetidine
D. Magnesium hydroxide
90. Example of dopamine antagonist:
A. Omeprazole
B. Metoclopramide
C. Cimetidine
D. Magnesium hydroxide
9 1. Whipple procedure is also known as …………………
A. Cholangiopancreatography
B. Pancreatoduodenectomy
C. Cholangiogram
D. All of the above
92. Somatostatin releases from…………
A. β cells B. a cells
C. Plasma cells D. D cells
93. Cell releases insulin……………..
A. β cells B. a cells
C. Plasma cells D. D cells
94. Another name for the (Billroth II) procedure is a
________.
Gastrojejunostomy B. Gastroduodenostomy
A.
C. Cholangiogram D. Cholecystogram
95. Which of the following arteries supplies blood
primarily to the midgut?
IMA B. Celiac
A.
C. SMA D. Axillary
96. Which of the following is not considered a right
of medication?
Dose B. Time
A.
C. Route D. Limit
97. Another name for the myenteric plexus is the
________.
Submucosal plexus B. Branchial plexus
A.
C. Auerbach’s plexus D. Lumbar plexus
98. Which of the following enzyme breaks down
starches to maltose?
Amylase B. Lipase
A.
C. Trypsinogen D. Pepsin
Section 1 Pharmacology
121
99. Which of the following is not considered an H2
blocker?
A. Ranitidine
B. Famotidine
C. Cimetidine
D. Sucralfate
100. Which of the following drugs aids in gastric
emptying?
A. Cisapride
B. Ranitidine
C. Famotidine
D. Tranylcypromine sulfate
ANSWER KEY
1. C 2. A 3. C 4. D 5. C 6. B 7. B 8. A 9. D 10. C 11. A 12. D 13. C 14. A
15. B 16. C 17. B 18. D 19. D 20. D 21. C 22. B 23. A 24. C 25. B 26. D 27. A 28. A
29. B 30. D 31. A 32. D 33. D 34. D 35. C 36. B 37. D 38. B 39. D 40. A 41. B 42. B
43. D 44. C 45. C 46. A 47. C 48. B 49. A 50. D 51. C 52. C 53. D 54. B 55. D 56. C
57. C 58. B 59. A 60. A 61. A 62. B 63. C 64. A 65. D 66. C 67. A 68. D 69. D 70. B
71. D 72. A 73. A 74. C 75. C 76. B 77. C 78. B 79. D 80. A 81. B 82. B 83. D 84. C
85. D 86. B 87. C 88. D 89. C 90. B 91. B 92. D 93. A 94. A 95. D 96. D 97. C 98. A
99. D 100. A
10. Immunopharmacology
1. Immediate allergy reaction (type I allergic
reaction) is:
An allergic or immune response that begins
A.
within a period lasting from a few minutes to
about an hour after exposure to an antigen to
which the individual has been sensitized
B. formation of antigen-antibody complexes
between a foreign antigen and IgM
C. An allergic reaction that is due to the presence of
elevated levels of antigen-antibody complexes
that cause tissue damage
D. All
2. Clinical uses of immunosuppressive drugs:
A. Organ transplantation
B. Hemolytic disease of the newborn
C. Autoimmune disorders
D. All of the above
3. TNF-a responds primarily to which of the
following?
Viral infection
A.
B. Gram-negative bacteria
C. Gram-positive bacteria
D. Tumor growth
4. Class of histamine H1 antagonists show highest
local anesthetic effect is:
Alkylamines (propylamines); i.e.
A.
Section 1 Pharmacology
122
brompheniramine
B. Piperidines, i.e. loratadine, fexofenadine
C. Ethylenediamines, i.e. suprastine
D. Phenothiazines, i.e. promethazine
5. Immunomodulatory sedative drugs used in the
management of some forms of leprosy; also
effective in managing skin manifestations of
lupus erythematosus:
Tacrolimus B. Cyclophosphamide
A.
C. Thalidomide D. Bupropion
6. Which of the following histamine H1 antagonists
is a long-acting (up to 24–48 h) antihistamine drug?
Diazoline B. Diprazine
A.
C. Suprastine D. Demerol
7. An immunomodulating agent is:
A. Sirolimus B. Levamisole
C. Tacrolimus D. All of the above
8. All of the following categories of histamine H
antagonists are produces sedation except:
Piperidines, i.e. fexofenadine
A.
B. Ethanolamines, i.e. dimedrol
C. Ethylenediamines, i.e. suprastine
D. Phenothiazines, i.e. promethazine
9. An example of the side effect of rst-generation
histamine H1 antagonists is …..
Megaloblastic anemia
A.
B. Vomiting, decreased hearing, liver damage
C. Sedation
D. All of the above
10. Clinical uses of interferon:
A. Cancer treatment B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Both A and B D. None of these
1
11. Antilymphocyte antibodies:
A. Attach with the surface of T cells
B. Acts mainly on small, long-lived peripheral
type of lymphocytes
C. May be obtained by hybridoma technology for
monoclonal antibody production
D. All of the above
12. Indication for IV IgG preparation administration
is:
Kaposi's sarcoma
A.
B. Acute rejection of organ transplant
C. Condyloma acuminatum
D. Prophylaxis of certain infections
13. Which drug is preferred in the treatment of
autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
Cyclophosphamide plus factor XIII
A.
B. Rho(D) immune globulin
C. Prednisone
D. OKT3 monoclonal antibody
14. Which of the following classes of antibody have
the best agglutination and complement activation
activity?
IgG B. IgM
A.
C. IgA D. IgD
15. Interferes with cell cycle of activated lymphoid
cells; example of the rst class of hormonal agents
recognized have lympholytic properties:
Cyclosporine
A.
B. Tacrolimus
C. Dexamethasone
D. 15-desoxyspergualin
16. Which drug is preferred in the treatment of
hemolytic anemia of the newborn:
Cyclosporine
A.
B. Prednisone
C. Tacrolimus
D. Rho(d) immune globulin
17. Half-life of interferon alpha is:
A. 28–32 hours B. 4–16 hours
C. 35–65 minutes D. 1 day
18. Class of sirolimus (rapamycin) is:
A. Immunoglobulins
B. Interferons
C. Immunosuppressive agents
D. Monoclonal antibodies
19. Class of tacrolimus (FK-506) is:
A. Immunosuppressive agents
B. Immunoglobulins
C. Interferons
D. Monoclonal antibodies
20. An example of monoclonal antibodies is:
A. Trastuzumab B. Rituximab
C. OKT-3 D. All of these
21. TNFa is most like which of the following
interleukins?
IL-1 B. IL-2
A.
C. IL-6 D. IL-18
22. Glucocorticoids produce its antiallergic effect by:
A. Inhibition of WBC migration and stabilizing
lysosomal membranes
B. Reverse the capillary permeability associated
with histamine release
C. Inhibition of the immune response by
suppressing antibody synthesis
D. All of the above
23. Structural analogue/antimetabolite: Cytotoxic
immunosuppressive drug:
Vincristine B. Cyclophosphamide
A.
C. Azathioprine D. None
24. These categories of histamine H1 antagonists are
noted for the anticholinergic effect, except:
Alkylamines, i.e. brompheniramine
A.
B. Piperazines, i.e. cyclizine
C. Ethylenediamines, i.e. suprastine
D. A and B both
25. The side effect of interferon gamma is:
A. Hypertension B. Pulmonary edema
C. Nephrotoxicity D. Fatigue
26. Useful in management of idiopathic
thrombocytopenic purpura refractory to
prednisone:
Vincristine B. Dactinomycin
A.
C. Cyclophosphamide D. Azathioprine
27. Where are T cells educated to differentiate
between self and non-self? This differentiation
comes in the form of a T cell receptor.
Bone marrow B. Thymus
A.
C. Spleen D. Brain
28. All are recognized as second-generation
antihistamines, except:
Astemizole B. Loratadine
A.
C. Cetirizine D. Suprastine
29. The side effect of cyclosporine A is:
A. Diarrhea B. Headache
C. GI disturbance D. Immunosuppression
30. Which one from the following is involved in both
innate and acquired immune responses?
B cells B. T cells
A.
C. Macrophages D. All of these
31. Inhibits antigen recognition of B-cell:
A. Prednisone
B. Azathioprine
C. Methotrexate
D. Rho(d) immune globulin
32. H1 histamine receptor subtype is distributed in
various parts of the body like:
Smooth muscle, endothelium and brain
A.
B. Gastric mucosa, skeletal muscle, mast cells
C. Brain, mesenteric plexus and other neurons
D. All of the above.
123
Section 1 Pharmacology
33. Half-life of OKT-3 is:
A. 18-24 hours B. 25-35 minutes
C. 4 - 16 hours D. 21 days
34. Which is not an example of immunomodulating
agent?
A. Cytokines B. Levamisole
35. Mechanism of action of IV IgG preparation is:
A. Suppress CD3 receptor
B. Suppress calcineurin
C. Cytolysis of T lymphocytes by complement-
mediation
D. Competition for Fc receptors with autoantibodies
C. BCG D. Tacrolimus
ANSWER KEY
1. A 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. C 6. A 7. B 8. A 9. C 10. C 11. D 12. D 13. C 14. B
15. C 16. D 17. B 18. C 19. B 20. D 21. A 22. D 23. C 24. B 25. D 26. B 27. B 28. D
29. C 30. C 31. D 32. A 33. A 34. D 35. D
11. Vitamin and Minerals
Definition: "Small organic molecules present in diet which
are required in small amounts”.
Most of the vitamins are not synthesized in the body and
hence they must be supplied in the diet.
Structure
However, a few vitamins are synthesized in the body.
some are present as precursors.
The precursor forms of vitamins are called as provitamins.
In the body these provitamins are converted to vitamins.
Section 1 Pharmacology
124
Thiamine
Niacin or nicotinic acid Nicotinamide Pentothenic acid
Riboavin
BiotinVitamin B6
Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) Vitamin A
Vitamin D
Vitamin E
Section 1 Pharmacology
125
Table 11.1.: Vitamin, functions, coenzymes, need and deciency
Vitamin Chemical
Function Co-enzyme Sources Daily
name
Vitamin B
Cobalamin Conversion of
12
food into energy
Cure of neuro
diseases, anemia
Red blood cell
For enzymes
that transfer
methyl groups
and produce red
blood cells
formation
Vitamin B
Biotin Energy storage
7
protein,
carbohydrate,
and fat
metabolism
Vitamin B
Folic acid Prevention of
9
birth defects,
protein
metabolism,
red blood cell
formation
Vitamin B
Pyridoxine Important for
6
healthy brain
pyridoxal
phosphate (PLP)
function,
nervous system
function,
protein, amino
acid, metabolism,
red blood cell
formation
Vitamin B
5
Pantothenic
acid
Conversion of
food into energy,
coenzyme A Avocados, liver,
fat metabolism,
hormone,
production
nervous system
function,
needed for
glucose and
cholesterol
synthesis,
reduce stress
Vitamin B
Niacin Cholesterol
3
production,
Conversion of
food into energy,
nicotinamide
adenine
dinucleotide
(NAD+)
digestion,
nervous system
function
Vitamin B
Riboavin Help in release
2
energy from
carbohydrate
Promote growth
and tissue repair
Flavin adenine
dinucleotide
(FAD) and avin
mononucleotide
(FMN)
Red blood cell
formation
Section 1 Pharmacology
126
Needed for good
vision
Dairy products,
eggs, fortied,
cereals, meats,
poultry, sea
products
Avocados,
cauliower, eggs,
fruits, liver, pork,
salmon, whole
grains
Asparagus,
avocado, beans and
peas, enriched grain
products, green
leafy vegetables,
orange juice
Chickpeas,
legumes, fruits
(other than citrus),
egg yolk, potatoes,
sh,
beans and peas,
broccoli, heart,
eggs, milk,
mushrooms,
poultry, seafood,
yeast, sweet
potatoes
Beans, meat,
enriched grain
products, nuts, rice,
poultry, seafood,
whole grains
Cereals, Eggs,
Vegetables, Meats,
Milk, Mushrooms,
Poultry, Seafood,
yeas, liver
Deciency Who
need
6 mg Pernicious
anemia and
nerve damage.
affects bone
marrow,
intestinal
tract and
neurological
system.
300 mg Biotin
deciency is
rare in humans
400 mg Megaloblastic
anaemia
2 mg It is rare in
human adults
dermatitis,
fatigue, and
anemia
10 mg Fatigue,
retarded
growth and
anemia
It causes
burning feet,
abdominal
cramps,
restlessness
and fatigue in
humans
20 mg Dermatitis,
muscle fatigue,
loss of
appetite,
pellagra
dementia
1.7 mg Angular
Stomatitis
Cheliosis
discovered
George
Whipple
George
Richards
Minot William
Murphy
Paul György
Henry Mitchell
Paul György
Roger J
Williams
R W Truesdail
Conrad
Elvehjem
Unknown
Contd...
Vitamin Chemical
Function Co-enzyme Sources Daily
name
Vitamin B
Thiamin Conversion of
1
food into energy
Nervous system
function
Vitamin c Ascorbic acid Antioxidant
Required for
collagen and
connective tissue
synthesis
Immune function
Infection
resistance
Wound healing
Needed for
catecholamine
synthesis from
tyrosine.
Fat soluble vitamin
Vitamin
A
Retinol Growth and
development
immune function
Reproduction
Red blood cell
formation
Retinal is
required for
normal and color
vision.
Cancer cure and
prevention
Heathy skin eyes,
bone formation
Thiamine
pyrophosphate
Outer coatings of
food grains like
rice, wheat and
yeast. Nuts, pork,
sunower seeds,
whole grains
Broccoli,
gooseberries,
cantaloupe, citrus
fruits and juices,
blueberries,
kiwifruit, red and
green vegetables,
Strawberries,
tomatoes and
tomato juice
Cantaloupe,
carrots, dairy
products, eggs,
yellow fruits, green
leafy vegetables,
pumpkin, red
peppers, sweet
potatoes
Deciency Who
need
discovered
1.5 mg Beriberi Christiaan
Eijkman
60 mg Weakened
connective
Albert Szent-
Györgyi
tissue,
slow-healing
wounds, and
anemia.
Scurvy
5,000 IU Night blindness
Degeneration
of myelin
sheath occurs
Elmer
McCollum and
Marguerite
Davis
Vitamin D Calciferol Blood pressure
regulation
Bone growth
regulation
of calcium
metabolism
Immune function
Nervous system
function
Vitamin E Tocopherol Antioxidant
Formation of
blood vessels
Inhibition
of platelet
aggregation
Improve
Immunity
Vitamin K Phylloquinone Blood clotting
Strong bones
Eggs, sh, sh
liver oil, fortied
cereals, fortied
dairy products,
fortied margarine,
fortied orange
juice, fortied soy
beverages
Fortied cereals
and juices, green
vegetables, nuts
and seeds, peanuts
and peanut butter,
vegetable oils
Green vegetables
(e.g., broccoli, kale,
beef liver, spinach,
turnip greens,
collards, swiss
chard, mustard
greens)
400 IU Rickets
(weakened
Elmer
McCollum
bones)
Osteomalacia
Osteoporosis
30 IU Herbert M
Evans
80 mcg Haemorrhage in
the new born
Henrik Carl
Peter Dam
Section 1 Pharmacology
127
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION
1. Which of the following substances is a vitamin-
like compound?
Ascorbic acid B. Taurine
A.
C. Thiamine D. Riboflavin
2. Antivitamins are:
A. Example of fat-soluble or water-soluble
organic/inorganic substances required in low
amounts for normal growth of the body
B. Example of substances prevent vitamins from
exerting their normal metabolic effects
C. Types of conjugated proteins produced by living
organisms and act as a specialized catalyst for
biochemical reactions
D. None
3. The iron stored in intestinal mucosal cells is
complexed to:
Ferritin B. Intrinsic factor
A.
C. Transcobalamin II D. A and B both
4. In adults, approximately ______ mg of thiamine
per day is completely degraded by the tissue.
0.01 B. 0.1
A.
C. 1 D. 10
5. Antienzymes are:
A. Agents, especially an inhibitory enzyme or an
antibody to enzymes, that retard, inhibit, or
destroy enzymic activity
B. Substances that prevent vitamins from exerting
their typical metabolic effects
C. Any of numerous proteins or conjugated
proteins produced by living organisms
and functioning as specialized catalysts for
biochemical reactions
D. Nonprotein organic substances that usually contain
a vitamin or mineral and combines with a specific
apoenzyme to form an active enzyme system
6. Choose correct statement about vitamin B
function:
The active functional form is pyridoxal
A.
phosphate
An essential constituent of coenzyme A
B.
C. Coenzyme for numerous metabolic reactions,
including transformation of methylmalonic
CoA to succinyl CoA in the metabolism of
propionate
An extremely important antioxidant, which
D.
protects cell membrane lipids from peroxidation
7. Avidin, a protein found in egg white is an
antagonist of:
Biotin
Section 1 Pharmacology
128
A.
B. Pantothenic acid
C. Choline
D. Pyridoxal
8. Choose correct statement about vitamin B3
Active group of the coenzyme’s nicotinamide-
A.
adenine dinucleotide and nicotinamide-adenine
phosphate
B. Required coenzyme for oxidative decarboxylate
of alpha-keto acids.
C. Specifically required for synthesis of
prothrombin and several other clotting factors
D. None
9. Choose incorrect statement about important
functions of magnesium:
Nerve conduction
A.
B. Phospholipid synthesis
C. Muscle contractility
D. Carbohydrate, fat, and electrolyte metabolism
10. Factors likely to cause an increase in the blood
urea nitrogen (BUN) level include:
Intramuscular (IM)injection of diazepam
A.
B. Severe liver disease
C. Chronic kidney disease
D. None
11. Patients receiving iron therapy should be warned
about:
Dizziness
A.
B. Danger of sunlight
C. Blackening of the stool
D. Paresthesia
12. Methionine converts into cysteine with the help
of vitamin…………….
B1 B. B
A.
C. B6 D. B
2
12
13. If osteoporosis is caused by high-dose use of
glucocorticoids then which one from the following
12
is the drug of choice for the its management?
Alendronate B. Calcitonin
A.
C. Mestranol D. Vitamin
14. Pernicious anemia is:
A. A type of anemia most often affecting elderly
adults, caused due to the incapability of the
stomach to absorb vitamin B
. This anemia
12
is characterized by abnormal size RBCs, GIT
disturbances, and lesions of the spinal cord
B. A type of anemia in which the bone marrow is
incapable to produces normal RBCs it is caused
by a bone marrow disease or exposure to some
toxic agents like radiation, chemicals, or drugs
C. Type of anemia characterized by a decrease in
the amount of corpuscular hemoglobin
D. All of the above