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85. Diabetic and other types of neuropathic pain often
respond to:
Chlorpromazine B. Diazepam
A.
C. Imipramine D. Lithium
86. Zolpidem belongs to following class of drugs:
A. Benzodiazepines B. Carbamates
C. Imidazopyridines D. None of the above
87. Drugs effective in bipolar illness include the
following except:
Olanzapine B. Diazepam
A.
C. Sodium valproate D. Lamotrigine
88. Indicate the psychostimulant, which is a
methylxantine derivative:
Caffeine B. Sydnocarb
A.
C. Amphetamine D. Meridil
89. Which of the following psychostimulants acts
centrally mainly by blocking adenosine receptors?
Meridil B. Caffeine
A.
C. Amphetamine D. Sydnophen
90. Which of the following factors may reduce lithium
concentrations?
Dehydration
A.
B. Pregnancy
C. Reduced sodium intake
D. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
91. Morphine stimulates:
A. Billary and pancreatic secretions
B. Nonpropulsive rhythmic contractions of small
intestine of man
C. Propulsive contractions in small intestine of
man
D. Propulsive peristaltic waves in colon
92. The toxicity of methanol is due to its conversion
in the body to:
Acetaldehyde
A.
B. Formic acid and formaldehyde
C. Ethyl alcohol
D. Carbonic acid
93. Acetylcholine has both muscarinic and nicotinic
actions. The muscarinic action can be blocked by:
Epinephrine B. Nicotine
A.
C. Atropine D. Curare
94. Morphine produces analgesia by acting at:
A. Peripheral pain receptors
B. A spinal site
C. Supraspinal sites
D. Both spinal and supraspinal sites
95. Indicate the antipsychotic drug, which is a
thioxanthene derivative:
Haloperidol B. Clozapine
A.
C. Chlorpromazine D. Thiothixene
96. Indicate the antipsychotic agent—a
dibenzodiazepine derivative:
Fluphenazine B. Clozapine
A.
C. Risperidone
97. The antidote of choice for morphine poisoning is:
A. Nalorphine B. Nalbuphine
C. Naltrexone D. Naloxone
98. Lithium carbonate is useful in the treatment of:
A. Petit mal seizures B. Bipolar disorder
C. Neurosis D. Trigeminal neuralgia
99. Adverse effects of caffeine include all of the
following except:
Hypotension
A.
B. Arrhythmias
C. Insomnia
D. Psychomotor excitation
100. Which of the following may increase seizure
activity in epileptic patients?
Ethotoin B. Phenobarbital
A.
C. Trihexyphenidyl D. Amantadine
101. Principal properties of cordiamine include all of
the following except:
Cardiac analeptic
A.
B. Respiratory analeptic
C. Coronarodilatator
D. Significant abuse potential
102. Thiazide diuretics may produce an increase in
blood levels of uric acid and:
Potassium B. Urea
A.
C. Glucose D. Lithium
103. Parkinsonian symptoms and tarditive dyskinesia
are caused by blockade dopamine in:
The nigrostriatal system
A.
B. The mesolimbic and mesofrontal systems
C. The chemoreceptor trigger zone of the medulla
D. The tuberoinfundibular system
104. The following opioid is more potent than morphine:
A. Pethidine B. Fentanyl
C. Dextropropoxyphene D. Tramadol
105. Acetylcholine has no therapeutic application
because
None of its actions are beneficial in any
A.
condition
B. Its effects are transient
C. It produces widespread actions affecting many
organs
D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
106. Tolerance is associated with:
A. An ability to compensate for the drug effect
B. Increased disposition of the drug after chronic
use
C. Compensatory changes in receptors, effector
enzymes, or membrane actions of the drug
D. All of the above
107. Neostigmine is preferred over physostigmine for
treating myasthenia gravis because:
It is better absorbed orally
A.
B. It has longer duration of action
Section 1 Pharmacology
79
C. It has additional direct agonistic action on
nicotinic receptors at the muscle end plate
D. It penetrates blood–brain barrier
108. Which of the following CNS stimulants belongs
to nootropics?
Camphor B. Pantocrin
A.
C. Sydnocarb D. Piracetam
109. Select the longer acting ocular beta blocker:
A. Levobunolol B. Timolol
C. Betaxolol D. Cartilol
110. Which of the following diuretics is most effective
in acute congestive glaucoma?
Indapamide B. Amiloride
A.
C. Mannitol D. Furosemide
111. Neuroleptics are used to treat:
A. Neurosis
B. Psychosis
C. Narcolepsy
D. Parkinsonian disorders
112. Most antipsychotic drugs:
A. Strongly block postsynaptic D2receptor
B. Stimulate postsynaptic D2 receptor
C. Block NMDA receptor
D. Stimulate 5-HT2 receptor
113. Local anaesthetics block nerve conduction by:
A. Blocking all cation channels in the neuronal
membrane
B. Hyperpolarizing the neuronal membrane
C. Interfering with depolarization of the neuronal
membrane
D. Both B and C
114. “Crack” is a derivative of:
A. Opium B. LSD
C. Cocaine D. Cannabis
115. The local anaethetic with the longest duration of
action is:
Procaine B. Chloroproacine
A.
C. Lidocaine D. Dibucaine
116. Which of the following abused drugs do not
belong to sedative agents?
Barbiturates B. Tranquilizers
A.
C. Cannabinoids D. Opioids
117. Psychedelics are all following agents except:
A. Cocaine
B. LSD
C. Marijuana
D. Volatile substances (glues, solvents, volatile
nitrites and nitrous oxide)
118. Strychnine produces convulsions by:
Section 1 Pharmacology
80
A. Stimulating NMDA receptors
B. Facilitating the excitatory transmitter glutamate
C. Blocking the inhibitory transmitter GABA
D. Blocking the inhibitory transmitter glycine
119. The local anaesthetic having high cardiotoxic and
arrhythmogenic potential is:
Lidocaine B. Procaine
A.
C. Bupivacine D. Chloroprocaine
120. Correct statements concerning aspirin include all
of the following except:
It inhibits mainly peripheral COX
A.
B. It does not have an anti-inflammatory effect
C. It inhibits platelet aggregation
D. It stimulates respiration by a direct action on
the respiratory center
121. For which of the following conditions could
aspirin be used prophylactically?
Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema
A.
B. Peptic ulcers
C. Thromboembolism
D. Metabolic acidosis
122. All the following are undesirable effects of aspirin
except:
Gastritis with focal erosions
A.
B. Tolerance and physical addiction
C. Bleeding due to a decrease of platelet aggregation
D. Reversible renal insufficiency
123 . In which of the following techiniques the concentration
of the local anaesthetic required is the lowest?
Infiltration anaesthesia
A.
B. Field block anaesthesia
C. Nerve block anaesthesia
D. Spinal anaesthesia
124. Captopril produces greater fall in blood pressure
in:
Diuretic treated patients
A.
B. Patients having low plasma rennin activity
C. Sodium replete normotensive individuals
D. Untreated CHF patients
125. Non-narcotic analgesics are mainly effective
against pain associated with:
Inflammation or tissue damage
A.
B. Trauma
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Surgery
126. Non-narcotic agents cause:
A. Respiratory depression
B. Antipyretic effect
C. Euphoria
D. Physical dependence
127. Industrial solvent inhalation causes:
A. Quick intoxication, lasting only 5–15 minutes
B. Euphoria, relaxed “drunk” feeling
C. Disorientation, slow passage of time and
possible hallucinations
D. All the above
128. Indications of piracetam include the following
except:
Apnoea in preterm infant
A.
B. Learning defects in children
C. Confusional states in the elderly
129. LSD decreases in brain:
A. 5-HT2 receptor densities
B. GABAA-benzodiazepine receptor densities
C. Adrenergic receptor densities
D. D2 receptor densities
130. Which of the following is a sign of deep
anaesthesia?
Appearance of tears in eyes
A.
B. Resistance to passive inflation of lungs
C. Fall in blood pressure
D. Patient makes swallowing movements
131. Which of the following stimulants is related to
psychedelics?
“Ecstasy” (methylenedioxymethamphetamine)
A.
B. cocaine
C. “crack” (cocaine free base)
D. Caffeine
132. The anaesthetic action of thiopentone sodium is
characterized by:
Good muscle relaxation
A.
B. Poor analgesia
C. Sensitization of heart to adrenaline
D. No postoperative residual CNS depression
133. Dissociative anaesthesia is produced by:
A. Ketamine B. Fentanyl + droperidol
C. Propofol D. Both A and B
134. Following agent potentiates actions of GABA:
A. Volatile anaesthetics
B. Barbiturates
C. Propofol
D. All of the above
135. The mechanism of action of barbiturates differs
from that of benzodiazepines in that they
Do not affect the GABA–benzodiazepine
A.
receptor–chloride channel complex
B. Act as inverse agonists at the benzodiazepine
receptor
C. Increase the frequency of chloride channel
opening without affecting its life time
D. Have both GABA–facilitatory as well as GABA–
mimetic actions
136. Currently barbiturates are primarily used as:
A. Hypnotic
B. Sedative
C. Antiepileptic
D. Preanaesthetic medicant
137. The following drug is used to reverse the CNS
depression produced by diazepam:
Nikethamide B. Doxapram
A.
C. Physostigmine D. Flumazenil
138. The most probable mechanism of anticonvulsant
action of phenytoin is:
A.
Facilitation of GABAergic inhibitory
transmission
B. Hyperpolarization of neurones
C. Interaction with Ca2+ channels to remote Ca2+
influx
D. Prolongation of voltage sensitive neuronal Na+
channel inactivation
139. Indicate the opioid analgesic, which is used for
relieving the acute, severe pain of renal colic:
A.
Morphine B. Naloxone
C. Methadone D. Meperidine
140. Which of the following opioid analgesics is used
in the treatment of acute pulmonary edema?
A.
Morphine B. Codeine
C. Fentanyl D. Loperamide
141. Sodium valproate should be used with caution
in young children because they are particularly
at risk of developing the following adverse effect
A.
Hepatitis B. Loss of hair
C. Anorexia D. Tremor
142. 2-bromo-2-chloro-1,1,1 triuroethane is:
A. Halothane B. Enflurane
C. Isoflurane D. Desflurane
143. Indicate the drugs of choice for reversing the
withdrawal syndrome:
A.
Benzodiazepines B. Neuroleptics
C. Antidepressants D. All of the above
144. Clobazam is a benzodiazepine used as:
A. Hypnotic B. Muscle relaxant
C. Anxiolytic D. Antiepileptic
145. Which of the following inhaled anesthetics can
produce hepatic necrosis?
A.
Soveflurane B. Desflurane
C. Halothane D. Nitrous oxide
146. Use of carbidopa along with levodopa in the
treatment of parkinsonism:
A.
Inhibits development of involuntary movements
B. Minimises ‘on–off’ effect
C. Inhibits occurrence of behavioral abnormalities
D. Accentuates nausea and vomiting
147. Indicated the inhaled anesthetic, which may cause
nephrotoxicity:
A.
Halothane B. Soveflurane
C. Nitrous oxide
148. Gabapentin acts:
A. As GABAA agonist
B. As precursor of GABA
C. By enhancing GABA release
D. By GABA independent mechanism
149. Which of the following inhaled anesthetics causes
centrally mediated sympathetic activation leading
to a rise in blood pressure and heart rate?
Section 1 Pharmacology
81
A. Desflurane B. Sevoflurane
C. Nitrous oxide D. Isofurane
150. Which of the following is a GABA-transaminase
inhibitor?
Gabapentin B. Vigabatrin
A.
C. Lamotrigine D. Clobazam
151. The most effective single drug in parkinsonism is:
A. Bromocriptine B. Selegiline
C. Levodopa D. Biperiden
152. The early stage of cannabis intoxication is
characterized by:
Euphoria, uncontrolled laugher
A.
B. Alteration of time sense, depersonalization
C. Sharpened vision
D. All of the above
153. Nitrous oxide is:
A. Non-flammable B. Non-irritant
C. Potent analgesis D. All of the above
154. Which of the following is a non-sedative
anxiolytic?
Meprobamate B. Buspirone
A.
C. Hydroxyzine D. Alprazolam
155. Prolonged lithium therapy can cause:
A. Diabetes mellitus B. Goiter
C. Parkinsonism D. Gout
156. Indicate the opioid receptor type, which is
responsible for dysphoria and vasomotor
stimulation:
Kappa-receptors B. Delta-receptors
A.
C. Mu-receptors D. All of the above
157. Which of the following diuretics is orally active,
efcacious in acidosis as well as alkalosis, causes
diuresis even in moderately severe renal failure
and has additional carbonic anhydrase inhibitory
action?
Mannitol B. Bendroflumethiazide
A.
C. Mersalyl D. Furosemide
158. Digitalis increases the force of contraction of
ventricles by:
Increasing the duration of systole
A.
B. Increasing the rate of contraction without
affecting the duration of systole
C. Increasing the rate of contraction, but reducing
the duration of systole
D. Increasing both the rate of contraction as well
as the duration of systole
159. Digitalis is most suitable for treatment of CHF
when it is due to:
Digoxin B. Furosemide
A.
C. Enalapril D. Amrinone
Section 1 Pharmacology
160. A patient of CHF was treated with furosemide and
82
digoxin. He became symptom-free and is stable for the
last 3 months with resting heart rate 68/min in sinus
rhythm but left ventricular ejection fraction is low.
Which of the following lines of action is warranted?
Stop above medication and start an ACE
A.
inhibitor
B. Continue all medication as before
C. Continue the diuretic but stop digoxin
D. Continue digoxin but stop the diuretic
161. The principal action common to all class I
antiarrhythmic drugs is:
A.
Na+ channel blockade
B. K+ channel opening
C. Depression of impulse conduction
D. Prolongation of effective refractory period
162. Furosemide is to be preferred over
hydrochlorothiazide when hypertension is
accompanied by:
A.
Asthma
B. Hyperuricaemia
C. Diabetes
D. Congestive heart failure
163. Methyldopa lowers BP by:
A. Inhibiting dopa decarboxylase in adrenergic
nerve endings
B. Generating-methyl noradrenaline in brain
which reduces sympathetic tone
C. Generating-methyl noradrenaline which acts
as a false transmitter in peripheral adrenergic
nerve endings
D. Activating vascular dopamine receptors
164. Injection of local anaesthetic directly into tissue
without taking into consideration the course of
cutaneous nerves is:
A.
Infiltration anesthesia
B. Field block anesthesia
C. Nerve block anesthesia
D. All of the above
165. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors are
contraindicated in:
A.
High rennin hypertensives
B. Diabetics
C. Congestive heart failure patients
D. Pregnant women
166. Secretion of K+ in the late distal tubule and
collecting ducts of kidney depends on
A.
Intracellular K+ content
B. Unabsorbed Na+ load presented to the distal
segment
C. Aldosterone
D. All of the above
167. Which of the following is the fastest acting
anticoagulant?
A.
Warfarin (Coumadin) B. Heparin
C. Ouabain D. Protamine sulfate
168. The drug of choice in the treatment of
organophosphorus poisoning is:
A.
Neostigmine B. Atropine
C. Pralidoxime D. Acetylcholine
169. The primary mechanism of action of
benzodiazepines is:
Dopamine antagonism
A.
B. Adenosine antagonism
C. Opening of neuronal chloride channels
D. Facilitation of GABA-mediated chloride influx
170. Acute opium poisoning is treated by intravenous
administration of:
Naloxone B. Pethidine
A.
C. Nalbuphine D. Noscapine
171. Peripheral conversion of levodopa to dopamine
is facilitated by:
Thiamine B. Riboflavin
A.
C. Pyridoxine D. Cyanocobalamin
172. In endothelium nitric oxide is synthezised from:
A. Arginine B. Valine
C. Tyrosine D. All of the above
173. Colchicine
A. Is used for treatment and prevention of acute
gouty arthritis
B. Causes cellular proliferation
C. Is an effective analgesic in osteoarthritis
D. (d) Enhances uric acid excretion
174. Probenecid:
A. Increases excretion of uric acid by blocking its
tubular reabsorption
B. Is used in combination with salicylates
C. Is useful in gouty patients with nephrolithiasis
D. Reduces the plasma concentrations of rifampicin
175. Mu (μ) receptors are associated with:
A. Analgesia, euphoria, respiratory depression,
physical dependence
B. Spinal analgesia, mydriasis, sedation, physical
dependence
C. Dysphoria, hallucinations, respiratory and
vasomotor stimulation
D. Analgesia, euphoria, respiratory stimulation,
physical dependence
176. Antihistamines, phenothiazines, tricyclic
antidepressants and antiparkinsonian agents
have a common property that:
All produces CNS stimulation
A.
B. All have adrenergic action
C. All have some atropine like action
D. All have long plasma half-life
177. Phenytoin:
A. Is useful only in the treatment of epilepsy
B. Has an antiarrhythmic action that is quite
different from that of quinidine
C. Has antiarrhythmic action against many types
of arrhythmias
D. Increases excitability of atrial or ventricular
muscle
178. Action of acetylcholine is terminated by:
A. Diffusion away from the site of action
B. Deamination
C. Hydrolysis
D. Temporary adsorption on plasma proteins
179. Chemical mediators in the nociceptive pathway
are all of the following except:
Enkephalins B. Kinins
A.
C. Prostaglandins D. Substance P
180. Succinylcholine is preferred over tubocurarine for
endotrachial intubation, because of the following
reasons except:
With succinylcholine total paralysis lasts up to
A.
4 min. with 50% recovery at about 10 min
B. Allergic reactions due to release of histamine
are not seen with succinylcholine
C. In addition to neuromuscular blocking effect
succinylcholine blocks autonomic ganglia
D. Bronchospasm is less common with
succinylcholine
181. The principal mechanism of fomepizol action is
associated with inhibition of:
Aldehyde dehydrogenase
A.
B. Acethylholinesterase
C. Alcohol dehydrogenase
D. Monoamine oxidase
182. Which of the following is both alpha and beta blocker?
A. Propranolol B. Labetalol
C. Esmolol D. Metoprolol
183. The rate limiting enzyme in synthesis of melatonin
and serotonin is:
Tryptophan hydroxylase
A.
B. 5 HT N-acetylase
C. Aldehyde dehydrogenase
D. Aldehyde reductase
184. Which of the following is a function of melatonin?
A. Darkening of skin color
B. Suppression of ovarian function
C. Regulation of biorhythm
D. All of the above
185. The local anaesthetic of choice during labor is:
A. Procaine B. Bupivacaine
C. Cocaine D. Lignocaine
186. Which neurotransmitter has maximum number of
receptor subtypes?
GABA B. Glutamate
A.
C. Serotonin D. Substance P
187. Alcohol:
A. Increases body temperature
B. Decreases body heat loss
C. Increases body heat loss
D. Does not affect body temperature
188. The barbiturate of choice for induction of
anaesthesis is:
Pentothal B. Thiamylal
A.
C. Methohexital D. Etomidate
189. Indicate the drug, which alters brain responses to
alcohol:
Naltrexone B. Disulfiram
A.
C. Amphetamine D. Chlorpromazine
Section 1 Pharmacology
83
190. Which of the following motivating factors is the
least important for the alcohol drinking habit:
A.
Physical dependence on alcohol
B. Pleasurable feelings induced by alcohol
C. Attitude to relate drinking with enjoyment
D. Social belief that alcohol intoxicated subject is
unmindful of his actions?
191. Which general anaesthetic selectively inhibits
excitatory NMDA receptors:
A.
Thiopentone B. Halothane
C. Desflurane D. Ketamine
192. Barbiturate induced enzyme induction facilitates
metabolism of:
A.
Steroid B. Ethanol
C. Vit K and D D. All of the above
193. MAO inhibitors in general raise the brain level of
A. Dopamine B. Serotonin
C. Nor adrenaline D. All of the above
194. Which of the following antiparkinsonian drugs
is an antiviral agent used in the prophylaxis of
inuenza A2?
A.
Selegiline B. Sinemet
C. Amantadine D. Pergolide
195. Disulram–ethanol interaction often produces
hypertension due to:
A.
Increased concentration of ethanol
B. Inhibition of sympathetic tone
C. Inhibition of dopamine hydroxylase
D. None of the above
196. Following are examples of generalized seizures, except:
A. Tonic-clonic seizures
B. Infantile spasms
C. Simple partial seizures
D. Atonic seizures
197. Lithium has also been used for which of the
following:
A.
Gout B. Salt substitute
C. Anticonvulsant D. All of the above
198. Which of the following statements is correct for
levodopa?
A.
Tolerance to both beneficial and adverse effects
develops gradually
B. Levodopa is most effective in the first 2–5 years
of treatment
C. After 5 years of therapy, patients have dose-
related dyskinesias, inadequate response or
toxicity
D. All of the above
199. Which of the following is not MAO-A inhibitor?
A. Selegiline B. Brofaromine
C. Clorgyline D. Moclobemide
200. The maximum dose of ergotamine per week in
Section 1 Pharmacology
84
treatment of migraine is:
A.
5 mg B. 10 mg
C. 20 mg D. 40 mg
201. Valproic acid is shown to be effective against
A. Absence seizures
B. Partial seizures
C. Generalized seizures
D. All of the above
202. Which of the following is 5 HT receptor antagonists?
A. Methysergide B. Plzotifen
C. Minaserin D. All of the above
203. Fenton reaction refers to the formation of
A. Free radical B. Hydrogen peroxide
C. Nitric oxide D. None of the above
204. Anti-epileptic, chemically derived from the
tricyclic antidepressant is:
Carbamazepine B. Ethosuximide
A.
C. Phenytoin D. None of the above
205. The mechanism of valproate action is:
A. Facilitation glutamic acid decarboxylase, the
enzyme responsible for GABA synthesis and
inhibition of GABA aminotransferase,
B. the enzyme responsible for the breakdown of
GABA (enhance GABA accumulation)
C. Inhibition of voltage sensitive Na+ channels
D. All of the above
206. ETDA is useful in poisoning due to all except:
A. Lead B. Zinc
C. Iron D. Mercury
207. Nalorphine is not used as antidote for:
A. Morphine B. Pethidine
C. Pentazocine D. Heroin
208. The reason for preferring ethosuximide to
valproate for uncomplicated absence seizures is:
More effective
A.
B. Valproate′s idiosyncratic hepatotoxicity
C. Greater CNS depressant activity
D. All of the above
209. The primary mechanism of action of
benzodiazepine is:
Dopamine antagonism
A.
B. Adenosine antagonism
C. Opening of chloride channel
D. Facilitation of GABA mediated chloride influx
210. Concurrent use ow which of the following
drugs may reverse the antiparkinsonian effect of
levodopa:
Carbidopa B. Selegiline
A.
C. Pyridoxine D. Bromocriptine
211. The mechanism of vigabatrin′s action is:
Direct action on the GABA receptor-chloride
A.
channel complex
B. Inhibition of GABA aminotransferase
C. NMDA receptor blockade via the glycine
binding site
D. Inhibition of GABA neuronal reuptake from
synapses
212. Which of the following opioid antagonists is used
as an adjunct to prevent relapse in addicts following
detoxication because of its long half-life ?
A. Nalorphine B. Naloxone
C. Naltrexone D. All of the above
213. Consumption of alcoholic beverages in moderate
amounts can be allowed for the following category
of subjects:
A.
Epileptics
B. Patients with history of myocardial infarction
C. Gastroesophageal reflux patients
D. Pregnant women
214. Morphine administration leads to:
A. Physical dependence
B. Psychological dependence
C. Physical as well as psychological dependence
D. None of the above
215. Naloxone and naltrexone are:
A. Opioid antagonists
B. Opioid agonists
C. Opioid agonists/antagonists
D. None of the above
216. Which of the following thioxanthene derivatives
may be used as an antiemetic and sedative?
A.
Chlorprothixene B. Flupenthixol
C. Thiothixene D. All of the above
217. Pergolide is:
A. Dopamine precursor
B. Dopamine agonist
C. Dopamine releasing agent
D. Dopamine antagonist
218. Indicate the antiseizure drug, which is a
phenyltriazine derivative:
A.
Phenobarbital B. Clonazepam
C. Lamotrigine D. Carbamazepin
219. Haloperidol is used in Huntington’s chorea as a:
A. Anti-psychotic drug
B. Anti-dyskinetic drug
C. Anti-emetic
D. None of the above
220. Chlorpromazine is a phenothiazine derivative
having a:
A.
Piperazine side chain
B. Aliphatic side chain
C. Peperazine side chain
D. None of the above
221. Which of the following extrapyramidal effects
seen with antipsychotic agents is not due to
dopamine receptor blockade, but due to super-
sensitivity of dopamine receptors?
A.
Acute dystonia reaction
B. Parkinsonian syndrome
C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. All of the above
2 22. The tricyclic antidepressant drugs produce their effect by
A. Increasing the synaptic concentration of
noradrenaline in the CNS
B. Increasing the synaptic concentration of 5- HT
in the CNS
C. By causing inhibition of noradrenaline and
5-HT re-uptake by the presynaptic neuronal
membrane
D. All of the above
223. The most common dose-related adverse effects of
carbamazepine are:
Diplopia, ataxia, and nausea
A.
B. Gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism
C. Sedation, physical and psychological
dependence
D. Hemeralopia, myasthenic syndrome
224. Phenelzine and tranylcypromine belong to
which one of the following group (class) of
antidepressants?
Tricyclic antidepressants
A.
B. MAO inhibitors
C. 5-HT uptake inhibitors
D. Atypical antidepressant drugs
225. Blood pressure is thought to generally remain
unchanged with which one of the following
anaesthetic agent
Enflurane B. Halothane
A.
C. Isoflurane D. Nitrous oxide
226. Indicate an antiseizure drug, which has an
impotent effect on the T-type calcium channels
in thalamic neurons?
Carbamazepin B. Lamotrigine
A.
C. Ethosuximide D. Phenytoin
227. Which one of the following drugs is not 5-HT
uptake inhibitor but used as an antidepressant?
Fluoxetine B. Maprotiline
A.
C. Paroxetine D. All of the above
228. Zolpidem is used as:
A. Anticonvulsant drug
B. Anti-anxiety drug
C. Sedative and hypnotic drug
D. Myorelaxant drug
229. The dynorphins are endogenous ligands for:
A. Κ B. Μ
C. d D. σ
230. Indicate the usual cause of death due to overdose
of hypnotics:
Depression of the medullar respiratory center
A.
B. Hypothermia
C. Cerebral edema
D. Status epilepticus
231. Botulinium toxin causes muscle palsy by blocking:
A. Nerve action potential
B. Acetylcholine release
C. Permeability to sodium and potassium
D. Muscle action potential
232. In small intestine, morphine particularly affects:
A. Duodenum B. Ileum
C. Both A and B
D. Does not affect small intestine
233. Opioid analgesics provide symptomatic relief of:
A. Pain B. Cough
C. Diarrhea D. All of the above
234. Opioid receptors act via:
A. Opening of potassium channels
B. Inhibition of calcium channels
C. Both A and B
D. Opening of sodium channels
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85
235. If a patient being anaesthetized with ether is
unconscious has regular respiration, blood
pressure and heart rate are normal, corneal reex
is present and eyeballs are roving, the patient is in:
A.
Stage II B. Stage III plane 1
C. Stage III plane 2 D. Stage III plane 3
236. Which of the following inhalation general
anesthetic is not a volatile liquid?
A.
Enflurane B. Methoxyflurane
C. Isoflurane D. Nitrous oxide
237. During slow wave sleep (stages 3 and 4 NREM
sleep):
A.
Dreams occur
B. The secretion of adrenal steroids is at its highest
C. Somnambulism and nightmares occur
D. The secretion of somatotropin is at its lowest
238. Which of the following is designated as “The Vital
Node”?
A.
Mid brain B. Pons
C. Medulla oblongata D. All of the above
239. Which of the following is a neurotransmitter in
the central nervous system (CNS):
A.
Acetylcholine
B. Noradrenaline
C. 5-Hydroxytryptamine
D. All of the above
240. The minimal alveolar concentration of an
inhalational anaesthetic is a measure of its:
A.
Potency
B. Therapeutic index
C. Diffusibility
D. Oil: Water partition coefficient
241. The primary mechanism by which general
anesthetics produce their action is:
A.
Affecting receptor operated ion channels in
cerebral neurons
B. Blocking voltage sensitive Na+ channels in
neuronal membrane
C. Depressing metabolic activity of cerebral
neurons
D. Blocking production of high energy phosphates
in the brain
242. General anaesthetics produce immobility in
response to painful surgical stimuli by acting
primarily at the:
A.
Motor cortex B. Basal ganglia
C. Thalamus D. Spinal cord
243. Indicate the agent, which interferes with GABA
binding:
A.
Flurazepam B. Bicuculline
C. Thiopental D. Zolpidem
244. No surgical operation should be performed during
the following stage of anaesthesia:
A.
Stage I B. Stage II
C. Stage III, plane 1 D. Stage III, plane 3
245. The minimal alveolar concentration (MAC) of
Section 1 Pharmacology
86
halothane is:
A.
75% B. 25%
C. 7.5% D. 0.75%
246. Phenytoin sodium:
A. Depresses ventricular automaticity
B. Decreases AV nodal conduction
C. Is given by constant intravenous infusion
D. Decreases the conduction velocity in the
ventricular fibers
247. Which of the following is a sign of deep
anaesthesia:
Appearance of tears in eyes
A.
B. Resistance to passive inflation of lungs
C. Fall in blood pressure
D. Patient makes swallowing movements
248. Flumazenil blocks the actions of:
A. Phenobarbital B. Morphine
C. Zolpidem D. Ethanol
249. The following factor delays induction with an
inhaled general anaesthetic:
A.
Alveolar perfusion-ventilation mismatch
B. Hyperventilation
C. Low bloodgas partition coefficient of the
anaesthetic
D. Inclusion of 5% carbon dioxide in the inhaled
gas mixture
250. 'Diffusion hypoxia’ is likely to occur only after
use of nitrous oxide because it:
Is a respiratory depressant
A.
B. Has low blood solubility and is used in high
concentration
C. Is a very potent anaesthetic
D. Interferes with diffusion of oxygen into the
tissues
251. Select the inhalational general anaesthetic which
is metabolized in the body to a signicant extent:
Sevoflurane B. Isoflurane
A.
C. Ether D. Halothane
252. Gabapentin acts by:
A. Binds to GABAA receptors
B. Binds to GABAB receptors
C. Inhibits GABA destruction
D. Promotes GABA release
253. MAO is localized in:
A. Cell membrane
B. Plasma
C. Mitochondrial membrane
D. All of the above
254. Which of the following agents inhibits hepatic
metabolism of hypnotics?
A.
Flumasenil B. Cimetidin
C. Phenytoin D. Theophylline
255. Use of morphine in preanaesthetic medication:
A. Is routine except in the presence of contra-
indications
B. Is restricted to patients being anaesthetized with
ether
C. Should be made only in combination with
atropine
D. Is restrictedmostly to patients in pain pre-
operatively
256. The following anaesthetic can be used by the open
drop method:
A.
Ether B. Desflurane
C. Halothane D. Isoflurane
257. The following general anaesthetic has poor muscle
relaxant action:
A.
Ether B. Nitrous oxide
C. Halothane D. Isoflurane
258. Select the correct statement about nitrous oxide:
A. It irritates the respiratory mucosa
B. It has poor analgesic action
C. It is primarily used as a carrier and adjuvant to
other anaesthetics
D. It frequently induces post anaesthetic nausea
and retching
259. Indicate the hypnotic benzodiazepine, which has
the shortest elimination half-life:
i. Triazolam ii. Temazepam
iii. Flurazepam iv. Diazepam
260. The anaesthetic action of thiopentone sodium is
characterized by:
A.
Good muscle relaxation
B. Poor analgesia
C. Sensitization of heart to adrenaline
D. No postoperative residual CNS depression
261. Ether is still used as a general anaesthetic in India,
especially in peripheral hospitals because:
A.
It is nonexplosive
B. It is pleasant smelling and nonirritating
C. It induces anaesthesia rapidly
D. It is cheap and can be administered without
anaesthetic machine
262. As a general anaesthetic, halothane has the
following advantages except:
A.
Very good analgesic action
B. Noninflammable and nonexplosive
C. Reasonably rapid induction of anaesthesia
D. Pleasant and nonirritating
263. The general anaesthetic having signicant cardio-
depressant property is:
A.
Halothane B. Enflurane
C. Ether D. Nitrous oxide
264. Select the general anaesthetic having the most
marked uterine relaxant action:
A.
Propofol B. Halothane
C. Nitrous oxide D. Ether
265. Regular low-to-moderate alcohol consumption is
associated with:
A.
Lower incidence of coronary artery disease
B. Myocardial depression
C. Physical dependence
D. Wernicke's encephalopathy
266. Select the general anaesthetic that is particularly
suitable for outpatient surgery because of
quick recovery and short-lived post-anaesthetic
psychomotor impairment:
A.
Ether B. Halothane
C. Enflurane D. Desflurane
267. Which of the following hypnotic agents is
absorbed slowly?
A.
Phenobarbital B. Flurazepam
C. Triazolam D. Temazepam
268. The drug/drugs used mainly for induction of
general anaesthesia is/are:
A.
Thiopentone sodium
B. Fentanyl + droperidol
C. Ketamine
D. All of the above
269. Residual CNS depression is least marked after the
use of the following anaesthetic:
A.
Diazepam B. Thiopentone sodium
C. Lorazepam D. Propofol
270. ‘Dissociative anaesthesia’ is produced by:
A. Ketamine B. Fentanyl
C. Propofol D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
271. Which of the following chemical agents are used
in the treatment of insomnia?
A.
Benzodiazepines B. Imidazopyridines
C. Barbiturates D. All of the above
272. Patients treated with the following drug should
be cautioned not to consume alcoholic beverages:
A.
Mebendazole B. Metronidazole
C. Methimazole D. Metamizol
273. Ketamine is the preferred anaesthetic for the
following except:
A.
Hypertensives
B. Trauma cases who have bled significantly
C. Burn dressing
D. Short operations on asthmatics
274. Select the anaesthetic that increases cardiac output
and blood pressure:
A.
Halothane B. Fentanyl
C. Ketamine D. Diazepam
275. Intravenous fentanyl is used in balanced
anaesthesia to afford:
A.
Relaxation of chest muscles
B. Analgesia
C. Unconsciousness
D. Suppression of gastric acid secretion
276. Use of glycopyrrolate in preanaesthetic medication
serves the following purposes except:
A.
Prevents respiratory secretions during
anaesthesia
B. Guards against reflex vagal bradycardia during
surgery
C. Produces amnesia for perioperative events
D. Reduces the probability of occurrence of
laryngospasm
277. The following drug is routinely used in
preanaesthetic medication for prolonged
operations:
A.
Atropine B. Morphine
C. Promethazine D. Ranitidine
278. Hypnotic drugs should:
A. Reduce anxiety and exert a calming effect
B. Induce absence of sensation
C. Produce drowsiness, encourage the onset and
maintenance of sleep
D. Prevent mood swings in patients with bipolar
affective disorders
Section 1 Pharmacology
87
279. The following is true about actions of ethylalcohol:
A. It exerts anticonvulsant action followed by
lowering of seizure threshold
B. It lowers pain threshold
C. It increases confidence and reduces number of
errors
D. It increases heat production and helps to keep
warm in cold weather
280. Effect of alcohol on sleep has the following feature:
A. It is a dependable hypnotic but is not prescribed
because of abuse potential
B. It consistently improves the quality of sleep
C. It can disorganize sleep architecture
D. It suppresses sleep apnoea
281. Moderate amounts of alcohol produce the
following effects except:
A. Flushing
B. Tachycardia
C. Diuresis
D. Rise in body temperature
282. Hypnotic drugs are used to treat:
A. Psychosis B. Sleep disorders
C. Narcolepsy D. Parkinsonian disorders
283. Malignant hyperthermia is a rare complication of
use of the following anaesthetic:
A. Ketamine B. Thiopentone sodium
C. Halothane D. Ether
284. Safe limit of daily alcohol consumption is:
A. Same for men and women
B. Relatively lower for women than for men
C. Relatively higher for women than for men
D. Less than half for women than for men
285. The following is true of sevourane except:
A. It induces anaesthesia rapidly
B. It is nonpungent
C. It produces prolonged postanaesthetic psycho-
motor impairment
D. It is less potent than halothane
286. What is considered to be the safe limit of daily
alcohol consumption by an adult man in the
absence of contraindications and interacting
drugs:
A. 20–40 ml of whisky
B. 50–100 ml of whisky
C. 120–180 ml of whisky
D. 200–300 ml of whisky
287. Which of the following is a recognized effect of
nitric oxide?
A. Arrhythmia
B. Constipation
C. Inhibition of acute graft rejection
D. Pulmonary vasodilation
ANSWER KEY
1. D 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. D 6. B 7. D 8. B 9. A 10. D 11. C 12. C 13. D 14. B
15. C 16. B 17. D 18. C 19. C 20. C 21. A 22. C 23. D 24. A 25. A 26. D 27. B 28. C
29. B 30. B 31. D 32. C 33. C 34. B 35. D 36. B 37. A 38. D 39. A 40. D 41. C 42. D
43. C 44. A 45. B 46. C 47. A 48. D 49. D 50. B 51. D 52. A 53. A 54. B 55. C 56. B
57. D 58. A 59. B 60. C 61. D 62. A 63. A 64. B 65. D 66. D 67. B 68. A 69. C 70. D
71. A 72. B 73. B 74. D 75. A 76. B 77. D 78. B 79. D 80. A 81. C 82. D 83. B 84. C
85. C 86. C 87. B 88. A 89. B 90. B 91. B 92. B 93. C 94. D 95. D 96. B 97. D 98. B
99. A 100. D 101. D 102. C 103. A 104. B 105. D 106. D 107. C 108. D 109. A 110. C 111. B 112. A
113. C 114. C 115. D 116. C 117. A 118. D 119. C 120. B 121. C 122. B 123. A 124. A 125. A 126. B
127. D 128. A 129. A 130. C 131. A 132. B 133. A 134. B 135. D 136. C 137. D 138. D 139. D 140. A
141. A 142. A 143. D 144. D 145. C 146. B 147. B 148. C 149. A 150. B 151. C 152. D 153. D 154. B
155. B 156. A 157. D 158. C 159. D 160. A 161. A 162. B 163. B 164. A 165. D 166. D 167. B 168. B
169. D 170. A 171. C 172. A 173. A 174. A 175. A 176. B 177. B 178. C 179. A 180. C 181. C 182. B
183. A 184. D 185. B 186. C 187. C 188. B 189. A 190. A 191. D 192. D 193. D 194. C 195. C 196. C
197. D 198. D 199. A 200. B 201. D 202. D 203. A 204. A 205. D 206. D 207. C 208. B 209. D 210. C
211. B 212. C 213. B 214. C 215. A 216. A 217. B 218. C 219. B 220. A 221. C 222. D 223. A 224. D
225. D 226. C 227. B 228. C 229. A 230. A 231. B 232. A 233. D 234. C 235. B 236. D 237. C 238. C
239. D 240. A 241. A 242. D 243. B 244. B 245. D 246. A 247. C 248. C 249. A 250. B 251. D 252. D
253. C 254. B 255. D 256. A 257. B 258. C 259. A 260. B 261. D 262. A 263. A 264. B 265. A 266. D
267. D 268. A 269. D 270. A 271. D 272. B 273. A 274. C 275. B 276. C 277. D 278. C 279. A 280. C
281. D 282. B 283. C 284. B 285. C 286. B 287. D
Section 1 Pharmacology
88