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Файл:Ординатура / Хирургия / Библиотека им академика М.И. Перельмана / Книга_5857_Библиотеки_им_академика_М_И_Перельмана.pdf
C. Disintegrating the cells from their supporting
matrix
D. None of the above
136. Subculturing is similar to propagation by cuttings
due to:
A. Separation of multiple microshoots and places
them in a medium
B. It uses scions to produce new microshoots
C. They both use in vitro growing conditions
D. All of the above
137. Long probes are usually made by:
A. Gene expression B. Cloning
C. Hybridization D. PCR
138. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Exonuclease III removes nucleotide residues
from the 3’-ends of a DNA strand
B. Bacteriophage lambda exonuclease removes
terminal phosphates
C. Alkaline phosphatase removes nucleotides from
5‘-ends
D. Kinase adds homopolymer tails to the 3’-OH
ends of a linear duplex
139. Which amino acid was produced by an immobilized
enzymeforthersttime?
A. L-amino acids
B. D-amino acids
C. D and L amino acids
D. None of the above
140. ThesizeoftheDNAregionspecicallyrecognized
by type II restriction enzymes is typically?
A. 4–6 base pairs
B. 10–15 base pairs
C. 50–60 base pairs
D. 200–300 base pairs
141. DNA extracted from an organism is cut into gene
size pieces with:
A. Polymerase enzymes
B. Helicase enzyme
C. Gyrase enzyme
D. Restriction enzyme
142. Advantages ofarticial methods ofvegetative
reproduction include:
A. Crops with better quality
B. Crops with more yield
C. Ability to produce plants with desirable
qualities
D. All of the above
143. Polyacrylamide gel is usually used for:
A. Proteins B. DNA
C. Both A and B D. Vitamins
144. Electromotive force that is used to move molecules
through gel matrix refers to:
A. Southern blotting B. Northern blotting
C. Cloning D. Gel electrophoresis
145. Which of the following processes generates a new
copy of the transposable element at a new location
of DNA?
A. Homologous genetic recombination
B. Site-specific recombination
C. Non-homologous recombination
D. Replicative recombination
146. Library screeningidenties coloniesthat have
specic:
A. Gene B. Bacteria
C. DNA D. RNA
147. Restriction enzymes:
A. Give protection to bacteria from viral infection
B. Cut DNA in a staggered manner
C. Cut DNAs producing a blunt end
D. All of the above
148. Considering fermentation at the industrial level,
microorganism Bacillus is used to form:
A. Ethanol B. Formic acid
C. Acrylic acid D. Glycerol
149. Choose incorrect statement about type II restriction
enzymes.
A. Many make staggered (off-centre) cuts within
their recognition sequences
B. Some cut DNA to generate blunt ends
C. They are part of a bacterial defense system in
which foreign DNA is cleaved
D. They cleave and ligate DNA
150. How does CO2 help in the cell metabolism during
cell culture?
A. It participates in the de novo synthesis of purines
and pyrimidines
B. Helps in the cell’s respiration
C. For monitoring pH of the culture
D. All of the above
151. For cloning, DNA samples are taken from:
A. Same individual B. Different individual
C. Different species D. None of these
152. With the help of enzymes protoplasts can be
produced from suspension cultures, callus tissues
or intact tissues. Those enzymes are:
A. Cellulolytic enzymes
B. Pectolytic enzymes
C. Both Cellulolytic and pectolytic enzymes
D. Proteolytic enzymes
153. Normally genomic library was made by?
A. T4 phage B. T3 phage
C. λ-phage vectors D. T6 phage
154. Plant transformation can be achieved by:
A. The combination of plant and animal cells in
culture
B. Shooting DNA inside the plant cells with the
help of a gun
C. Using the E. coli bacterium to infect plant roots
D. Tobacco mosaic virus infection to plants
Section 4 Biotechnology
449448
155. A collection of total genomic DNA from a single
organism is called:
A. Gene library B. Gene cloning
C. Gene regulation D. Gene expression
156. Which of the following is used to inhibit bacterial
growth?
A. Yarrow B. Chilli
C. Juniper D. Liquorice
157. Which of the following processes occurs in
regions where no large-scale sequence similarity
is apparent?
A. Homologous genetic recombination
B. Site-specific recombination
C. Non-homologous recombination
D. Replicative recombination
158. Which of the following can be termed as a
restrictionmodicationsystem?
A. Restriction endonuclease + Methylase
B. DNA ligase + Methylase
C. Restriction endonuclease + Acetylase
D. DNA ligase + Acetylase
159. Certain restriction enzymes produce sticky ends.
This means that they:
A. Cut both DNA strands at the same base pair
B. Cut in regions of high GC content, leaving ends
that can form more hydrogen bonds than ends
of high AT content
C. Make a staggered double-strand cut, leaving
ends with a few nucleotides of single-stranded
DNA protruding
D. Make ends that can anneal to cohesive ends
generated by any other restriction enzyme
160. Which is not an advantage of fermented food?
A. Makes the food more digestible
B. Increase storage life
C. Synthesize vitamins
D. Decrease intestinal microflora
161. In buffer, nucleic acids are often denatured by
using:
A. Urea B. Ammonia
C. Phosphorus D. Calcium
162. Types of stem cells in mammals are:
A. 2 B. 3
C. 4 D. 5
163. A technique that measures the degree of genetic
similarity between pools of DNA sequences is
called:
A. Annealing B. Denaturation
C. Hybridization D. Polymerization
164. The TP53 gene of chromosome 17 codes for a
protein:
Section 4 Biotechnology
A. That plays a role in the digestive process
B. Involved in glucose transport
C. Involved in the regulation of the cell cycle
D. All of the above
165. In hybridization, this is not a part of the technique
used:
A. Transfer pollen
B. Collect pollen
C. Emasculate
D. Use of two plants to bridge the stems together
166. Under which of the following conditions would
population gene frequencies remain the same?
A. Selection for homozygotes
B. Small population size
C. Active migration between groups
D. Random mating
167. Stem cells are present in:
A. Multicellular organisms
B. Unicellular organisms
C. Non-living things
D. Viruses
168. Ammonia, ammonium salts, and urea are the
most commonly used __________ sources in the
fermentation process.
A. Carbon B. Enzyme
C. Nitrogen D. Minerals
169. Environmental clean-up uses:
A. Genetically engineered microbes
B. Bacteria
C. Viruses
D. DNA
170. Which of the following is not a basic ingredient
of a ginger beer?
A. Lemon B. Ginger
C. Salt D. Yeast
171. A low branch with a node is bent down and
covered with soil in:
A. Marcotting B. Layering
C. Cutting D. Budding
172. Transformationefciencyofλ-phage vector over
plasmid vector is:
A. 100 times B. 1000 times
C. 500 times D. 700 times
173. In the lab, recombinant plasmids are generally
introduced into bacterial cells by following
method:
A. By electrophoresis
B. By infection with a bacteriophage that carries
the plasmid
C. By microinjection
D. By mixing plasmids with an extract of broken
cells
174. In gel electrophoresis, fragments are separated on
the basis of:
A. Size
B. Charge
C. Both A and B
D. Temperature sensitivity
175. For DNA, agarose gel have lower:
A. Resolving power B. Separation range
C. pH D. Temperature
176. Which of the following involves the remarkable
capacity of a short segments of DNA to move from
one place to another?
A. DNA transposition B. DNA replication
C. Translation D. Transcription
177. Inthegrowthroom,humidierservesas:
A. Contaminant reducer
B. Humidity reducer
C. Medium drying preventer
D. Temperature controller
178. Which of the following is true about restriction
endonucleases?
A. Type I and II requires ATP to move along DNA
B. Type I, II and III requires ATP to move along
DNA
C. Type II requires no ATP and cleaves DNA within
recognition sequence
D. Type II requires ATP and cleaves DNA within
the recognition sequence
179. Virulence trait of Agrobacterium tumefaciens is
borne on:
A. Chromosomal DNA
B. Tumour inducing plasmid DNA
C. Both chromosomal and plasmid DNA
D. Cryptic plasmid DNA
180. Which of the following processes occurs between
DNA molecules of very similar sequences?
A. Homologous genetic recombination
B. Site-specific recombination
C. Non-homologous recombination
D. Replicative recombination
181. Where did ginger beer originate?
A. England B. America
C. Japan D. China
182. In a developing embryo, stem cells can differentiate
into:
A. Ectoderm B. Endoderm
C. Mesoderm D. All of these
183. In gel electrophoresis, DNA molecules migrate
from __________ to __________ ends of the gel.
A. Negative, positive B. Basic, acidic
C. Long, short D. Positive, negative
184. In eukaryotic cells, mature mRNA is already
spliced, hence cDNA produced has no:
A. Introns B. Exons
C. Ribosomes D. Uracil
185. The sequences of the recombination sites
recognizedbysite-specicrecombinasesare:
A. Partially asymmetric
B. Partially symmetric
C. Symmetric
D. Palindromic
186. Positively charged species will migrate towards:
A. Anode B. Cathode
C. Straight D. Faster
187. pBR322 (E. coli recombinant plasmid) has all of
the following features, except:
A. A number of located recognition sites for
restriction enzymes
B. A number of palindromic sequences near the
EcoRI site, allow the plasmid to assume a
conformation that protects newly incorporated
DNA from nuclease damage
C. A replication origin, which allows it to replicate
quickly
D. Resistance to two different antibiotics, allow
rapid screening for recombinant plasmids
having foreign DNA fragments
188. Antibody diversity is generated by:
A. Protein splicing
B. Somatic mutation
C. Allelic exclusion
D. Interchromosomal recombination
189. An expression vector:
A. Always contains an origin of replication
B. Generally contains a gene that confers antibiotic
resistance to the bacterial host
C. Always contains DNA segments for the
regulation of mRNA production
D. All of the above
190. Generally, a plasmid vector contains how many
elements?
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
191. The process of making beer is known as
_____________
A. Mashing B. Brewing
C. Malting D. Sparging
192. Which of these restriction enzymes produces blunt
ends?
A. SaII B. EcoRV
C. XhoI D. HindIII
193. Sticky ends are overhanging pieces of single
stranded:
A. DNA
B. RNA
C. Proteins
D. Messenger RNA
194. Restriction enzymes are named for:
A. The person who discovered
B. The bacterium they are derived from
C. The viral DNA that they attack
D. None of the above
195. First discovered, type II restriction endonuclease
was:
A. HinfI B. EcoK
C. HindII D. EcoRI
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196. Restriction enzymes are also called:
A. Restriction sites
B. Restriction endonucleases
C. Restriction polymerases
D. Endonucleases
197. To make the recombinant plasmid permeable to
DNA molecules, which of the chemicals is added?
A. MgCl
2
B. CaCl
2
C. NaCl D. HCl
198. The microorganism useful for fermentation is:
A. Bacteria B. Yeast
C. Fungi D. None of these
199. A piece ofDNAorRNAusedto detect specic
nucleic acid sequences by hybridization is called:
A. Probe B. Plasmid
C. Vector D. Endonucleases
200. Which of these statements is true of natural clones
in mammals?
A. They have identical nuclear genomes and,
on average, 50% of the same mitochondrial
genome
B. They share the same nuclear and mitochondrial
DNA genomes
C. They share, on average, 50% of their nuclear
genome but have identical mitochondrial
genomes
D. They share, on average, 50% of their nuclear
and mitochondrial genomes
201. A convenient cloning vector used to introduce
foreign DNA into E. coli is a(n):
A. E. coli chromosome B. Messenger RNA
C. Plasmid D. Yeast “ARS” sequence
202. Tools that group and interpret genes that are
similar to certain proteins or related groups are
called:
A. BLAST B. Cloning
C. Hybridization D. Gene expression
203. In order to insert a foreign gene into a plasmid,
both must __________
A. Have identical DNA sequences
B. Originate from the same type of cell
C. Be cut by the same restriction enzyme
D. Be of the same length
204. Which of the following contain only the sequences
required for transposition and the genes for
proteins that promote the process?
A. Insertion sequences
B. Complex transposons
C. Transposons
D. Chromosomes
205. The extra chromosomal, self-replicating, closed,
double-stranded and circular DNA molecule is
Section 4 Biotechnology
generally termed:
A. Chromosome B. Plasmid
C. Genomic DNA D. Bacteriophage
206. A collection of total genomic DNA from a single
organism is called:
A. Gene library B. Gene cloning
C. Gene regulation D. Gene expression
207. Chelating agents prevent the formation of
insoluble:
A. Calcium precipitates
B. Metal precipitates
C. Enzyme precipitates
D. Product precipitates
208. Which of the following techniques can be used to
determine the defective gene and for developing
cancer?
A. Western blot B. Southern blot
C. Northern blot D. Eastern blot
209. Enzyme used in the formation of cDNA from
mRNA is:
A. Helicase
B. Polymerase
C. Reverse transcriptase
D. Gyrase
210. Which enzyme forms covalent bonds between
restriction fragments?
A. DNA primase B. DNA helicase
C. DNA polymerase D. DNA ligase
211. The unpaired nucleotides produced by the action
of restriction enzymes are referred to have:
A. Sticky ends
B. Single strands
C. Restriction fragments
D. Ligases
212. Which method of plant propagation involves the
use of girdling?
A. Grafting B. Cuttings
C. Layering D. Micropropagation
213. A human cDNA library:
A. Contains DNA for specific human proteins
B. Contains DNA for virtually all of the human
proteins in vectors
C. Cannot be used to obtain human genes because
they would be radioactive
D. None of the above
214. A small circular DNA present in bacterial cells are
called:
A. Enzymes B. Ribosomes
C. Plasmids D. All of these
2 15. In which stage of genetic engineering a probe is used?
A. Cleaving DNA B. Recombining DNA
C. Cloning D. Screening
216. Basic principle of industrial microbiology is:
A. Suitable growth conditions
B. Fermentation
C. Providing aseptic conditions
D. All of the above
217. Which of the following does not apply to the
construction or use of a DNA library?
A. Determining the location of a particular DNA
sequence in a DNA library requires a suitable
hybridization probe
B. Genomic libraries are better for expressing gene
products than cDNA libraries
C. Many segments of DNA from a cellular genome
are cloned
D. Specialized DNA libraries can be made by
cloning DNA copies of mRNAs
218. Raw-material used for the production of alcohol
is:
A. Molasses
B. Starch
C. Sulphite waste water
D. Both A and B
219. Which type of restriction enzymes does not usually
require ATP?
A. Type I B. Type II
C. Type III D. Type IV
220. The M13mp2 consists of ________ restriction site.
A. BamHI B. AluI
C. PvuII D. EcoRI
221. The ability of a cell to form a whole plant is known
as:
A. Redifferentiation B. Dedifferentiation
C. Either A or B D. None of these
222. X-rays cause:
A. Dimerization of thymine molecule
B. Ionization of water in the cell
C. Heat generation
D. None of the above
223. Repressor molecules bind to:
A. Operator
B. Promoter
C. Enhancer
D. Hormone response element
224. Carbon sources used in media formulation are the
following, except:
A. Carbohydrates B. Oils and fats
C. Hydrocarbons D. Peptones
225. The PCR reaction mixture does not include:
A. All four deoxynucleoside triphosphates
B. DNA containing the sequence to be amplified
C. DNA ligase
D. Heat-stable DNA polymerase
226. Following are the essential minerals for all media,
except:
A. Calcium B. Potassium
C. Magnesium D. Manganese
227. The M13mp1 contains __________
A. LacZ’ gene
B. Ampicillin resistance gene
C. Restriction sites
D. Tetracycline resistance gene
228. Which of the following is not a product of
fermentation?
A. Lactate B. Oxygen
C. Carbon dioxide D. Ethanol
229. Which of the following is not a source of energy
in active muscle cells?
A. Creatine phosphate B. ATP
C. Lactic acid D. Glucose
230. The culture medium should not:
A. Be sterilized easily
B. Be cheap and readily available
C. Allow high yield of undesired products
D. All of the above
231. There is a sequence region in M13 where the
foreign DNA can be inserted. What is this
sequence called?
A. Inverted repeat B. Palindromic
C. Intergenic D. Interstitial
232. Which of the following properties is not taken into
account while looking for a suitable vector?
A. Size
B. Parent organism
C. Restriction site
D. Origin of replication
233. ___________________ is the detrimental effect of
microorganisms in the food.
A. Generation of flavour
B. Process of fermentation
C. Spoilage of food
D. All of the above
234. Which of the following enzymes is required for
end-to-end joining of DNA?
A. DNA ligase
B. Restriction endonuclease
C. RNA polymerase
D. DNA polymerase
235. Which of the following is not a part of the growth
medium for animal culture?
A. Starch B. Serum
C. Carbon source D. Inorganic salts
236. Which antibiotic resistance is present in pBR322?
A. Ampicillin B. Kanamycin
C. Lactase D. Gentamicin
237. It is mandatory that cultures and fermentation
residues be sterilized before discard in case
of Eremothecium ashbyii and Ashbya gossypii
because they are:
A. Plant pathogens B. Human pathogens
C. Plant mutants D. None of these
238. In the case of Candida species, it is required
that fermentation equipment lined with plastic
because they are extremely sensitive to:
A. Traces of cobalt B. Traces of nickel
C. Traces of iron D. None of these
Section 4 Biotechnology
453452
239. Antifoam agent is:
A. Silicon compounds B. Corn oil
C. Soya bean oil D. All of these
240. Which of the following is/are the characteristics
of a normal cell?
A. Anchorage-independent
B. Continuous cell lines
C. Dependent on external growth factor
D. No contact inhibition
241. TherstpenicillinisolatedbyAlexanderFleming,
penicillin F is also called:
A. 2-pentenyl penicillin
B. n-heptyl penicillin
C. Phenoxymethyl penicillin
D. Benzyl penicillin
242. Thymosins are:
A. Small proteins B. Medium proteins
C. Large proteins D. Globular proteins
243. Size of pBR322 is _______
A. 100 kb B. 10 kb
C. 4.3 kb D. 1 kb
244. Which species from the following is resistant to
methyl tryptophan?
A. Candida utilis B. E. coli
C. B. subtilis D. Hansenula anomala
245. Which breeding method uses a chemical to
strip the cell wall of plant cells of two sexually
incompatible species?
A. Mass selection B. Protoplast fusion
C. Transformation D. Transpiration
246. The other name of invertase enzyme is:
A. Sucrase B. Saccharase
C. Isomerase D. Both A and B
247. Neomycin-B is obtained from:
A. Streptomyces niveus
B. Streptomyces fradiae
C. Streptomyces spheroides
D. Streptomyces griseus
248. On the basis of employing medium, we can
classify technique of organ culture into:
A. Solid medium B. Liquid medium
C. Both A and B D. Semisolid medium
249. Which of the following cephalosporin is more
active than penicillin against various species of
Salmonella?
A. Cephalosporin N B. Cephalosporin C
C. Synnematin D. Both A and C
250. Which selection system is used in the pUC18
plasmid?
Section 4 Biotechnology
A. Antibiotic selection
B. Lactose selection
C. Auxotrophic mutant selection
D. Plaque morphology selection
251. The size of M13 phage vector is _________.
A. 3 kb B. 6.4 kb
C. 15.4 kb D. 20.4 kb
252. Range of optimum glutamine concentration
present in the culture media is:
A. 1–2 mmol/L B. 2–7 mmol/L
C. 7–15 mmol/L D. 15–20 mmol/L
253. Which of the following pairs will produce
complementary sticky ends?
A. Eco RI and MspI
B. Msp I and HPA II
C. Sau 3A and Bam HI
D. Mbo I and Sau 3A
254. For the production of ethanol, the raw material
used is:
A. Molasses
B. Cellulose
C. Sulphite waste liquor
D. None of the above
255. The growth of animal cells in vitro in a suitable
culture medium is called___________
A. Gene expression B. Transgenesis
C. Plant tissue culture D. Animal cell culture
256. For the lysis of yeast cell wall, which enzyme is
most commonly used?
A. Glucanases
B. Protease
C. Mannase
D. All the three in combination
257. Monoclonal antibodies are referred as ___________.
A. Magic bullets B. Magic gun
C. Magic shots D. Magic bomb
258. Pectinase, an enzyme used for increasing yield
and for clarifying juice is obtained by:
A. A. oryzae B. A. niger
A. avus D. All of these
C.
259. Which of the following genetic diseases would be
amenable to genetic engineering?
A. Down’s syndrome
B. Muscular dystrophy
C. Cystic fibrosis
D. All of the above
260. A plasmid:
A. Is a circular DNA molecule
B. Always contains an origin of replication
C. Usually contains one or more restriction sites
D. All of the above
261. The 95% ethanol is equivalent to:
A. 190 proof B. 110 proof
C. 170 proof D. 120 proof
262. The poor antigen in a conjugate vaccine is:
A. Strong protein B. Weak protein
C. A polysaccharide D. Non-polysaccharide
263. Which additional feature does pGEM-3Z has
which makes it a suitable vector for in vitro
transcription of cloned genes?
A. Unique ori
B. Promoters
C. Clustered cloning sites
D. LacZ’ gene
264. What is the copy number of the pUC8 plasmid
vector?
A. 5–10 B. 50–100
C. 100–200 D. 500–700
265. Eicosanoids is a type of ________________.
A. Hormone B. Antibiotic
C. Vaccine D. Antigen
266. Accumulation of ammonia causes toxicity which
can be overcome:
A. By replacing glutamine with glutamate
B. By regulating the addition of glutamine at a low level
C. By removal of ammonia or ammonium from
the culture medium
D. All of the above
267. RNA polymerase is inhibited by:
A. Rifampicin B. Actinomycin
C. Both A and B D. None of these
268. Hybridoma cells have an application to produce:
A. Antigens B. Antibodies
C. Cancer cells D. Cell lines
269. Which of the following are the metabolic products
of glucose and glutamine?
A. CO2 and NH
3
B. CO2 and lactate
C. Lactate and ammonium
D. Lactate only
270. The final electron acceptor in lactic acid
fermentation is:
A. Oxygen B. Lactic acid
C. Pyruvate D. All of these
271. Nametheorganismonwhichtherstcelllinewas
observed?
A. E. coli B. Sheep
C. Mouse D. Drosophila
272. Which of the following is not the explantation
technique?
A. Slide culture
B. Carrel flask culture
C. Roller test tube culture
D. Adherent primary culture
273. Which of the following is used in the culture of
regenerating protoplasts, single cells or very dilute
cell suspensions?
A. Nurse medium
B. Nurse or feeder culture
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
274. What do you mean by glycosylation?
A. Addition of sugar
B. Non-addition of sugar
C. Lysis of sugar moieties
D. Blockage of sugar molecules
275. Which of the following is the technique used for
the embryo culture?
A. Organ cultures on plasma clots
B. Organ cultures on agar
C. Whole embryo cultures
D. All of the above
276. The penicillin F which was produced at first
required the mold:
A. Penicillium chrysogenum
B. Pencillium notatum
C. Pencillium chrysogenum
D. None of the above
277. Protoplasts are the cells devoid of:
A. Cell membrane
B. Cell wall
C. Both cell wall and cell membrane
D. None of the above
278. Transferases are involved in the transfer of:
A. Phosphate group
B. Amino group
C. Methyl group
D. All of the above
Section 4 Biotechnology
455454
ANSWER KEY
1. C 2. D 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. B 7. A 8. A 9. C 10. B 11. A 12. D 13. D 14. C
15. A 16. B 17. A 18. A 19. D 20. D 21. B 22. D 23. C 24. A 25. C 26. B 27. D 28. D
29. C 30. B 31. D 32. B 33. B 34. D 35. D 36. A 37. D 38. A 39. B 40. C 41. C 42. A
43. D 44. A 45. C 46. C 47. D 48. D 49. A 50. D 51. C 52. B 53. B 54. B 55. C 56. B
57. B 58. C 59. D 60. B 61. C 62. B 63. C 64. C 65. D 66. D 67. A 68. A 69. A 70. D
71. C 72. B 73. A 74. A 75. B 76. D 77. D 78. B 79. B 80. C 81. D 82. C 83. A 84. B
85. A 86. C 87. B 88. D 89. C 90. A 91. D 92. C 93. A 94. A 95. B 96. B 97. B 98. D
99. A 100. C 101. B 102. C 103. C 104. A 105. A 106. B 107. B 108. A 109. C 110. D 111. A 112. D
113. B 114. A 115. A 116. D 117. D 118. A 119. D 120. B 121. C 122. A 123. A 124. C 125. C 126. B
127. D 128. D 129. C 130. D 131. B 132. C 133. B 134. A 135. A 136. A 137. B 138. A 139. A 140. A
141. D 142. C 143. C 144. D 145. D 146. A 147. D 148. C 149. D 150. A 151. B 152. C 153. C 154. B
155. A 156. A 157. C 158. A 159. C 160. D 161. A 162. A 163. C 164. C 165. D 166. D 167. B 168. C
169. A 170. C 171. B 172. B 173. D 174. C 175. A 176. A 177. C 178. C 179. B 180. A 181. A 182. D
183. A 184. A 185. A 186. B 187. B 188. C 189. D 190. C 191. B 192. B 193. A 194. B 195. C 196. B
197. B 198. A 199. A 200. B 201. C 202. A 203. C 204. A 205. B 206. A 207. B 208. B 209. C 210. D
211. A 212. C 213. B 214. C 215. D 216. A 217. B 218. A 219. B 220. D 221. A 222. B 223. A 224. D
225. C 226. D 227. A 228. B 229. C 230. C 231. C 232. A 233. C 234. A 235. A 236. A 237. A 238. C
239. D 240. C 241. A 242. A 243. B 244. C 245. B 246. D 247. B 248. C 249. D 250. B 251. B 252. B
253. C. 254. A 255. D 256. D 257. A 258. A 259. C 260. D 261. A 262. C 263. B 264. D 265. A 266. D
267. C 268. B 269. C 270. C 271. C 272. D 273. C 274. A 275. D 276. B 277. B 278. D
Section 4 Biotechnology
Microbiology
1. Introduction to Microbiology
2. Microscopy
3. Staining Methods
4. Biology of Microorganisms
5. Fungi and Viruses
6. Aseptic Technique, Sterilization and Disinfection
7. Microbial Spoilage and the Immune System
8. Vaccines
9. Important Terminology, Tables and Figures
5
1. Introduction to Microbiology
Microbiology is the science involved the study of
microorganisms (size usually < 1 mm in diameter).
Microbiology includes
Virology : The study of virus
Bacteriology : The study of bacteria
Phycology : The study of algae
Mycology : The study of fungi
Protozoology : The study of protozoa
Scope of Microbiology
Immunology
Food, dairy and aquatic microbiology
Industrial microbiology
Medical microbiology
Geochemical microbiology
Molecular biology
Environmental microbiology
Biosensors
Bioremediation
Greenhouse gas bioremediation
Agricultural microbiology
Biotechnology
Genetic engineering and recombinant DNA technology.
Basic terms used in discussing the control of microorganisms
include:
Sterilization: Sterilization is the process of destroying
all living organisms and viruses. A sterile object is one
free of all life forms, including bacterial endospores, as
well as viruses.
Disinfection: Disinfection is the elimination of
microorganisms from inanimate objects or surfaces.
Decontamination: Decontamination is the treatment of
an object or inanimate surface to make it safe to handle.
Disinfectant: A disinfectant is an agent used to disinfect
inanimate objects but generally too toxic to use on human
tissues.
Antiseptic: An antiseptic is an agent that kills or
inhibits growth of microbes but is safe to use on human
tissue.
Sanitiser: A sanitiser is an agent that reduces, but may
not eliminate, microbial numbers to a safe level.
Cidal: An agent that is cidal in action will kill micro-
organisms and viruses.
Static: An agent that is static in action will inhibit the
growth of microorganisms.
Antibody: Protein molecules (immunoglobulins)
produced by B lymphocytes to help eliminate an
antigen.
Antigen: A live (e.g. viruses and bacteria) or inactivated
substance capable of producing an immune response.
Five Kingdom Classification—Robert Whittaker
RH Whittaker (1969): Five kingdom classification named
monera, protista, fungi, plantae and animalia (Fig. 1.1).
The main criteria for five-kingdom classification—cell
structure, thallus organisation, mode of nutrition,
reproduction and phylogenetic relationships.
Fig.1.1: Five kingdom classication
Characteristics of the Five Kingdoms
Five Kingdoms
Characters
Monera Protista Fungi Plantae Animalia
Type of cell Prokaryotic Eukaryotic Eukaryotic Eukaryotic Eukaryotic
Presence of cell wall Polysaccharide
and amino acid
Present in some
organisms
Present Present Absent
Presence of nuclear membrane Absent Present Present Present Present
Type of body organization Cellular Cellular Multicellular/
loose tissue
Tissue/ organ Tissue/organ/
organ system
Mode of nutrition Autotrophic Autotrophic Heterotrophic Autotrophic Heterotrophic
Hierarchy of Classification
Section 5 Microbiology
Kingdom Pylum Class Order Family
Genus Species
The Germ Theory of Fermentation
Pasteur postulated that fermentation is done by the growth
of microorganisms and bacteria growth in nutrient media