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In the singular (_foot_, _Fuss_) and modified vowel in the plural

(_feet_, _Füsse_)? Was the pre-Anglo-Saxon alternation of _fot_ and

_föti_ an absolutely mechanical matter, without other than incidental

morphological interest? It is always so represented, and, indeed, all

the external facts support such a view. The change from _o_ to _ö_,

later _e_, is by no means peculiar to the plural. It is found also in

the dative singular (_fet_), for it too goes back to an older _foti_.

Moreover, _fet_ of the plural applies only to the nominative and

accusative; the genitive has _fota_, the dative _fotum_. Only centuries

later was the alternation of _o_ and _e_ reinterpreted as a means of

distinguishing number; _o_ was generalized for the singular, _e_ for the

plural. Only when this reassortment of forms took place[161] was the

modern symbolic value of the _foot_: _feet_ alternation clearly

established. Again, we must not forget that _o_ was modified to _ö (e)_

In all manner of other grammatical and derivative formations. Thus, a

pre-Anglo-Saxon _hohan_ (later _hon_) "to hang" corresponded to a

_höhith_, _hehith_ (later _hehth_) "hangs"; to _dom_ "doom," _blod_

"blood," and _fod_ "food" corresponded the verbal derivatives _dömian_

(later _deman_) "to deem," _blödian_ (later _bledan_) "to bleed," and

_födian_ (later _fedan_) "to feed." All this seems to point to the

purely mechanical nature of the modification of _o_ to _ö_ to _e_. So

many unrelated functions were ultimately served by the vocalic change

that we cannot believe that it was motivated by any one of them.

[Footnote 161: A type of adjustment generally referred to as "analogical

leveling."]

The German facts are entirely analogous. Only later in the history of

the language was the vocalic alternation made significant for number.

And yet consider the following facts. The change of _foti_ to _föti_

antedated that of _föti_ to _föte_, _föt_. This may be looked upon as a

"lucky accident," for if _foti_ had become _fote_, _fot_ before the _-i_

had had the chance to exert a retroactive influence on the _o_, there

would have been no difference between the singular and the plural. This

would have been anomalous in Anglo-Saxon for a masculine noun. But was

the sequence of phonetic changes an "accident"? Consider two further

facts. All the Germanic languages were familiar with vocalic change as

possessed of functional significance. Alternations like _sing_, _sang_,

_sung_ (Anglo-Saxon _singan_, _sang_, _sungen_) were ingrained in the

linguistic consciousness. Further, the tendency toward the weakening of

final syllables was very strong even then and had been manifesting

Itself in one way and another for centuries. I believe that these

further facts help us to understand the actual sequence of phonetic

changes. We may go so far as to say that the _o_ (and _u_) could afford

to stay the change to _ö_ (and _ü_) until the destructive drift had

advanced to the point where failure to modify the vowel would soon

result in morphological embarrassment. At a certain moment the _-i_

ending of the plural (and analogous endings with _i_ in other

formations) was felt to be too weak to quite bear its functional burden.

The unconscious Anglo-Saxon mind, if I may be allowed a somewhat summary

way of putting the complex facts, was glad of the opportunity afforded

by certain individual variations, until then automatically canceled out,

to have some share of the burden thrown on them. These particular