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308
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CHAPTER | MOCKEXAMINATION
38. An 18- year- old woman with a three- month history of abdominal
discomfort and unintentional weight loss presented with right- sided
abdominal pain and vomiting. Her blood pressure was 110/ 70mmHg
and pulse 110 beats per minute.
Investigations:
Haemoglobin 104 g/ L
White cell count 13.1 × 109/ L
Platelet count 430 × 109/ L
Serum C- reactive protein (CRP) 112 mg/ L
CT abdomen and pelvis 12- cm length of terminal ileal stricturing with
an adjacent intra- abdominal collection. There
are proximal loops of dilated small bowel. Three
closely spaced mid- ileal strictures, each about 3cm,
are demonstrated proximal to the dilated loops.
What is the most likely surgical procedure?
A. Defunctioning loop ileostomy proximal to the mid- ileal strictures
B. Defunctioning loop ileostomy proximal to the terminal ileal stricture
C. Ileocaecal resection
D. Ileocaecal resection and en bloc mid- ileal stricture resection
E. Ileocaecal resection and three mid- ileal stricturoplasties
Appearances are compatible with active CD.

CHAPTER | QUESTIONS
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309
39. A 54- year- old businessman was referred from the rheumatology clinic
with a two- year history of migratory arthralgia of the large joints. He
had developed episodic non- bloody diarrhoea and crampy abdominal
pain. He had lost weight. On examination, a pericardial rub was audible
and there was small volume ascites.
Investigations:
Rheumatoid factor Negative
IgA tissue transglutaminase antibody Negative
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) Normal
Faecal microscopy and culture Negative
Faecal ova, cysts, and parasites Negative
HIV Negative
Gastroscopy Normal
Duodenal histology Mild duodenal villous blunting
Colonoscopy Normal
Colonic histology Normal
MR enterography No evidence of small bowel inammation
What is the diagnostic test?
A. Carcinoembryonic antigen
B. Faecal calprotectin
C. HLA- DQ2 and DQ8
D. Periodic acid- Schi (PAS) staining of duodenal biopsies
E. Serology for Treponema pallidum

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CHAPTER | MOCKEXAMINATION
40. A 48- year- old woman with primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) attended
annual clinic follow- up suering from severe fatigue.
Investigations:
Platelet count 170 × 109/ L
Liver stiness measurement (LSM) 10.8 kPa
Serum alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 180 U/ L
Serum bilirubin 45 µmol/ L
Liver ultrasound Coarse irregular heterogenous liver, no focal
lesion, normal portal vein ow, no ascites, spleen
size 12cm
Which of the following is true about PBC?
A. Fatigue is an indication for LT
B. Recurrent PBC following LT often leads to graft loss
C. Severity of symptoms does not correlate with stage of disease
D. This patient should undergo endoscopy for variceal screening
E. Women are at increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma compared with men
41. A 40- year- old woman was reviewed on the ward 24 hours after LT for
alcohol- related cirrhosis. The organ donor was positive and the recipient
was negative for cytomegalovirus (CMV) (D+/ R−).
What is the most appropriate management regarding CMV infection
post- transplantation?
A. Foscarnet prophylaxis for three months
B. Intravenous ganciclovir for two weeks
C. No prophylaxis and send CMV polymerase chain reaction (PCR) only if clinical suspicion
of CMV disease
D. Valganciclovir prophylaxis for three months
E. Weekly CMV PCR during hospitalization and start valganciclovir if persisting viraemia

CHAPTER | QUESTIONS
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311
42. A 43- year- old female was admitted from the mental health unit having
reportedly swallowed a foreign object. She denied any symptoms but
refused to say what she had ingested.
Which of the following objects may be safely considered for conservative
management?
A. 15mm button battery
B. 15mm magnet
C. 15mm × 60mm nail le
D. 20mm coin
E. 25mm metal toothpick
43. A 34- year- old man with complex ileocolonic CD developed a secondary
loss of response to iniximab. He had evidence of active disease at
recent ileocolonoscopy. His background included psoriasis for which he
was under the dermatologists.
Which novel therapy is most appropriate to introduce?
A. Amiselimod
B. Mongersen
C. Tofacitinib
D. Ustekinumab
E. Vedolizumab
44. A 26- year- old- woman attended the IBD clinic. She had left- sided
UC diagnosed ve years ago, which was conrmed as quiescent on
colonoscopy six months earlier. Despite mesalazine 1.2 g twice daily
with good compliance, the patient’s bowel frequency had increased to
ve times per day with some rectal bleeding. Her GP had increased the
mesalazine to 2.4 g twice daily one week before, but without benet.
She was apyrexial and her pulse was 56 beats per minute.
Investigations:
Haemoglobin 134 g/ L
White cell count 9.0 × 109/ L
Platelet count 320 × 109/ L
Serum C- reactive protein (CRP) 40 mg/ L
Serum alanine transferase (ALT) 26 U/ L
Serum alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 96 U/ L
What should you recommend?
A. Azathioprine
B. Corticosteroid enema
C. Mesalazine enema
D. Mesalazine suppository
E. Oral prednisolone reducing course

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CHAPTER | MOCKEXAMINATION
45. A 50- year- old man with alcohol- related cirrhosis and diuretic- controlled
ascites was reviewed in clinic. He complained of several months of
worsening shortness of breath that improved when he was lying at. He
had no other past medical history and was a lifelong non- smoker.
Investigations:
Chest radiograph Normal
Oxygen saturations on air 89%
Arterial pH on air 7.35
Arterial pO
Arterial pCO
2
2
7.3 kPa
4.6 kPa
Arterial base excess 5.1mmol/ L
What would be the next best investigation?
Arterial HCO
3
28.5mmol/ L
A. Lung perfusion scan
B. Spirometry
C. Right- heart catheterization study
D. Transthoracic contrast enhanced echocardiogram
E. Transthoracic echocardiogram
46. A 57- year- old man with extensive UC (pancolitis) was admitted to
hospital with bloody diarrhoea (15 times per day). On day three of
intravenous hydrocortisone, his stool chart showed nine bloody stools
in the last 24 hours, his temperature was 37.6°C, and he denied
abdominal pain. Abdominal plain lm excluded toxic megacolon. His
blood pressure was 205/ 106mmHg and pulse was 86 beats per minute.
His background included treated pulmonary tuberculosis, hypertension,
and NAFLD.
Investigations:
Haemoglobin 98 g/ L
White cell count 12.0 × 109/ L
Platelet count 455 × 109/ L
Serum C- reactive protein (CRP) 40 mg/ L
Serum cholesterol 3.2mmol/ L
Serum magnesium 0.8mmol/ L
Serum alanine transferase (ALT) 35 U/ L
Serum alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 104 U/ L
What is the most appropriate plan?
A. Continue intravenous steroids for a further 3days
B. Iniximab 5 mg/ kg intravenous induction regime
C. Intravenous ciclosporin at a dose of 4 mg/ kg per day
D. Oral ciclosporin at a dose of 2 mg/ kg per day in divided doses
E. Subtotal colectomy

CHAPTER | QUESTIONS
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313
47. A 68- year- old man was admitted with a one- day history of melaena. He
had no relevant past medical history and took no regular medications.
What percentage of patients who are admitted with apparent acute
upper GI bleeding do not reveal a cause at initial gastroscopy?
A. 2%
B. 9%
C. 17%
D. 28%
E. 44%
48. Which of the following is a major risk factor for the formation of brown
pigment gallstones?
A. Cholangitis
B. Chronic haemolysis
C. Crohn’s disease
D. Pregnancy
E. Rapid weight loss
49. A 64- year- old man presented with large volume melaena. He had a past
medical history of type 2 diabetes, peripheral vascular disease with left
above- knee amputation, previous endovascular repair of an abdominal
aortic aneurysm, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. He was
a smoker and drank alcohol to excess. On examination, he appeared
pale and clammy, pulse 136 beats per minute and blood pressure 86/
54mmHg.
Investigations:
Haemoglobin 63 g/ L
Serum urea 23.5mmol/ L (baseline for patient=11.3)
Serum creatinine 124 μmol/ L (baseline for patient=108)
After initial resuscitation, what is the most important rst investigation?
A. Colonoscopy
B. CT angiography
C. Gastroscopy
D. MR angiography
E. Video capsule endoscopy

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CHAPTER | MOCKEXAMINATION
50. A 43- year- old man from Argentina was visiting family in the UK. He
presented to the emergency department with a ve- month history of
abdominal discomfort, anorexia, cough, and shortness of breath.
Investigations:
Haemoglobin 134 g/ L
White cell count 8.7 × 109/ L
Neutrophil count 5.1 × 109/ L
Lymphocyte count 2.9 × 109/ L
Monocyte count 0.3 × 109/ L
Eosinophil count 0.6 × 109/ L
Basophil count <0.1 × 109/ L
Platelet count 453 × 109/ L
Serum bilirubin 47 µmol/ L
Serum alanine transferase (ALT) 23 U/ L
Serum alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 180 U/ L
CT abdomen (Fig. 11.5)
Fig.11.5 CT abdomen
Reproduced with kind permission from Dr Paul Burn, Consultant Radiologist
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Amoebic liver abscess
B. Caroli’s syndrome
C. Hepatocellular carcinoma
D. Hydatid disease
E. Polycystic liver disease

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chapter
MOCKEXAMINATION
ANSWERS
1. D. Nodular regenerative hyperplasia (NRH)
• Thiopurines can cause a transient transaminitis, cholestatic hepatitis, sinusoidal obstruction
syndrome, and NRH
• NRH occurs in ~1% of IBD patients treated with azathioprine for 10years and is characterized
by diuse liver nodularity without annular brosis leading to non- cirrhotic portal hypertension
Four patterns of hepatotoxicity are recognized with the use of thiopurines (azathioprine, 6mercaptopurine, thioguanine):
1. Atransient and usually asymptomatic elevation in serum transaminases is the most common,
occurring in ~10% of patients. It is usually self- limiting, resolves rapidly on drug discontinuation
or dose reduction, and is associated with higher levels of the thiopurine metabolite
methyl- mercaptopurine.
2. One in 1,000 develop idiosyncratic cholestatic hepatitis with intrahepatic cholestasis on
histology but with only modest elevations in aminotransferases and alkaline phosphatase
alongside moderate- to- severe jaundice.
3. Sinusoidal obstruction syndrome (formerly ‘veno- occlusive disease’) is best recognized with
the use of chemotherapy agents or after hematopoietic stem cell transplantation but is rarely
reported with chronic thiopurine use. It is characterized by damage to small hepatic vessels
causing abdominal pain, jaundice, oedema, and portal hypertension.
4. NRH is a rare liver condition dened by alternating atrophic and hyperplastic areas of liver
parenchyma causing diuse nodulation without annular brosis that can progress to noncirrhotic portal hypertension. The cumulative risk of NRH in patients with IBD treated with
azathioprine is 0.5% at 5years and 1.25% at 10years. In patients on long- term azathioprine for
AIH who develop features of portal hypertension, both NRH as well as brosis progression
must be considered as an underlying cause.
Drug- induced AIH is associated with minocycline, nitrofurantoin, diclofenac, indomethacin, and
iniximab. Hepatic brosis can be caused by amiodarone and methotrexate. Steatosis is seen with
methotrexate, 5- uorouracil, corticosteroids, and tamoxifen. Granulomatous hepatitis is associated
with allopurinol, carbamazepine, methyldopa, phenytoin, and quinidine.
LiverTox. Clinical and research information on drug- induced liver injury [Internet]. Bethesda
(MD):National Institute of Diabetes and Digestive and Kidney Diseases; 202– . Azathioprine.
[Updated 2 August207]. Available at:https:// www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/ books/ NBK548332
Best of Five MCQs for the European Specialty Examination in Gastroenterology and Hepatology. Thomas Marjot, Colleen G C McGregor,
Tim Ambrose, Aminda N De Silva, Jeremy Cobbold, and Simon Travis, Oxford University Press (2021). © Oxford University Press.
DOI: 10.1093/oso/9780198834373.003.0011

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CHAPTER | MOCKEXAMINATION
2. C. Restrict hypotonic uid intake to less than 500 ml per day and commence a
mix of 20 g glucose, 3.5 g salt, and 2.5 g sodium bicarbonate in 1 litre water
• Oral glucose- electrolyte mixes (e.g. St Mark’s solution or double strength Dioralyte™) require
a sodium concentration greater than 90mmol/ L to achieve net absorption in the jejunum
• Patients with more than 100cm jejunum do not usually require parenteral support
The residual small bowel length following resection, together with the presence or absence of
colon in continuity, can help predict what hydration and nutritional support patients will require.
Radiological estimation (using magnetic resonance (MR)/ computed tomography (CT) enterography
or barium studies) approximates to bowel length but referral to the operation note is important.
Patients with more than 100cm jejunum, or 50cm jejunum anastomosed to colon, do not usually
require parenteral support.
To achieve net absorption of sodium and water, jejunal contents require a sodium concentration
greater than 90mmol/ L. These patients must not be encouraged to drink hypotonic uids ad
libitum to quench thirst because this increases stomal losses and worsens hydration. Hypotonic
uids (e.g. water, tea, coee, fruit juices) should be restricted to less than 500 mL per day. An oral
glucose- electrolyte mix, with a sodium concentration greater than 90mmol/ L, aids water/ sodium
balance. St Mark’s solution (20 g glucose, 3.5 g salt, and 2.5 g sodium bicarbonate in 1 litre water)
or double strength Dioralyte™ (10 sachets in 1 litre water) are two mechanisms to achieve this.
The latter provides a substantial potassium load as well, and should be exercised with caution in
patients with a propensity for potassium overload (e.g. renal failure).
Nightingale J, Woodward JM. Guidelines for management of patients with a short bowel. Gut.
2006;55(Suppl 4):iv– 2.
3. E. Underlying primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)
• MRCP and CT are used in the diagnosis and staging of perihilar cholangiocarcinoma (pCCA)
to characterize degree of biliary and vascular involvement, respectively
• LT is preferable to resection for pCCA in patients with PSC
• Locoregional lymphadenopathy is not a contraindication to resection but is associated with a
poorer outcome
pCCA describes tumours located between the secondary branches of the right and left hepatic
ducts, and the common hepatic duct proximal to the cystic duct origin. Tumours more proximal
to this are called ‘intrahepatic cholangiocarcinomas’ and those involving the common bile duct, up
to but not including the ampulla, are called ‘distal cholangiocarcinomas’. Acombination of MRCP
and CT is used in the diagnosis and staging of pCCA to characterize degree of biliary and vascular
involvement respectively. ERCP also enables detection of strictures and can acquire biliary brushing
samples for cytological assessment. Endoscopic ultrasound is associated with high tumour detection
but ne needle aspiration should be avoided due to the risk of peritoneal tumour seeding in >80%.
Surgical resection is potentially curative for patients with pCCA without the following exclusion
criteria:i) bilateral involvement of the second- order bile ducts; ii) bilateral or contralateral vascular
involvement; iii) presence of metastatic disease; iv) underlying PSC. Patients with PSC should
preferentially be treated with LT because of the eld defect in PSC and frequent underlying
advanced brosis. The presence of locoregional lymphadenopathy is not a contraindication but is
associated with a poorer post- surgical outcome. Abutment (as opposed to involvement) of the
vasculature is not a contraindication for resection. Surgery for pCCA involves lobectomy with
bile- duct resection, regional lymphadenectomy, and Roux- en- Y hepaticojejunostomy. To maximize
post- operative liver function, the ipsilateral portal vein is often embolized pre- operatively to

CHAPTER | ANSWERS
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promote contralateral lobe hypertrophy. LT following neoadjuvant chemoradiatherapy oers the
best outcomes for patients with unresectable pCCA but only a minority of patients with early stage
disease are candidates.
Rizvi S, Khan SA, Hallemeier CL etal. Cholangiocarcinoma— evolving concepts and therapeutic
strategies. Nat Rev Clin Oncol. 208;5(2):95– . Doi:0.038/ nrclinonc.207.57.
317
4. D. Dysmotility associated with hypermobile- type Ehlers- Danlos syndrome (hEDS)
• hEDS is associated with functional GI disorders and autonomic dysfunction
• These patients often develop more chronic pain and somatization
• hEDS does not have a known genetic basis at present
Approximately one third of patients presenting to gastroenterology clinics have evidence of joint
hypermobility. The Beighton score can be used to formalize the degree of hypermobility, with a
positive score dened as >6 in prepubertal children, >5 in postpubertal people, and >4 in those
over 50years of age. Patients with both hypermobility and GI symptoms often have evidence of
postural orthostatic tachycardia syndrome (POTS) or other autonomic symptoms such as irritable
bladder.
hEDS is a clinical diagnosis and there is no known genetic association at present. The 2017
international diagnostic criteria include aspects such as generalized joint hypermobility, positive
family history of hEDS, chronic pain, and musculoskeletal pain. The mechanism of GI and
autonomic involvement is poorly understood.
Cannabis is known to cause GI upset, including constipation, but usually only when used to excess.
The patient is not diabetic and there is no suggestion of an eating disorder causing her symptoms.
Mitochondrial disease is unlikely, particularly because there are no visual symptoms.
Fikree A, Chelimsky G, Collins H etal. Gastrointestinal involvement in the Ehlers- Danlos syndromes.
Am J Med Genet C Semin Med Genet. 207;75():8– 87. Doi:0.002/ ajmg.c.3546.
5. C. Interstitial cells of Cajal
• Cholecystokinin (CCK) and gastric inhibitory polypeptide (GIP) are gut hormones involved in
delaying gastric emptying
• Slow wave stomach contractions are controlled by cells of Cajal whereas phasic contractions
of the distal stomach are controlled by the migrating motor complex
The proximal stomach serves as a reservoir for food and, at its maximum relaxation, gastric
barostat studies have shown that it can allow over 1L of nutrients to be ingested. In addition, the
proximal stomach also helps to regulate the gastroduodenal ow rate and provides the space and
time for pepsin and hydrochloric acid to initiate digestion.
The duration of post- prandial motor activity varies according to the volume ingested as well as
the chemical characteristics of the ingested foods. The maximum duration of post- prandial motor
activity is 120 minutes.
CCK and GIP are hormones involved in producing a negative feedback to slow gastric emptying.
CCK regulates gastric emptying and bowel motility to induce satiety, thus delaying gastric emptying.
GIP is thought to inhibit gastric acid secretion and reduce the rate at which food is transferred
through the stomach, thereby delaying gastric emptying.
Goyal RK, Guo Y, Mashimo H.Advances in the physiology of gastric emptying. Neurogastroenterol Motil.
209 Apr;3(4):e3546. Doi:0./ nmo.3546.
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