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Файл:Ординатура / Хирургия / Библиотека им академика М.И. Перельмана / Книга_5857_Библиотеки_им_академика_М_И_Перельмана.pdf
Blood plasma consists basically of water, electrolytes,
and plasma proteins. However, a plasma substitute
need not contain plasma proteins. These can be
suitably replaced with macromolecules (“colloids”)
that, like plasma proteins, (1) do not readily leave
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
the circulation and are poorly filtrable in the renal
glomerulus;and (2) bind water along with its solutes
due to their colloid osmotic properties. In this manner,
they will maintain circulatory filling pressure for
many hours.
1. The lining of the inner walls of the heart’s
chambers is termed the:
A.
Visceral pericardium
B. Epicardium
C. Myocardium
D. Endocardium
2. The outermost layer of serous pericardium is
known as:
A.
Visceral pericardium
B. Parietal pericardium
C. Epicardium
D. Myocardium
3. The heart’s natural pacemaker is known as:
A. Sinoatrial node
B. Atrioventricular node
C. Bundle of His/atrioventricular bundle
D. All
4. During ventricular lling:
A. Pressure of left atrium is more as compaired the
pressure of left ventricle.
B. Pressure of the venae cavae is more as
compaired the pressure of right atrium.
C. pressure of the pulmonary veins is more as
compaired the pressure of the left ventricle.
D. All of these
5. Part of heart’s electrical conduction network which
is found within the ventricular myocardium is
known as:
A.
Sinoatrial node
B. Atrioventricular node
C. Left and right bundle branches
D. Purkinje fibers
6. If the heart’s natural pacemaker fails to generate
the impulse, then:
A.
Blood would not enter the atria
B. Blood would not enter the ventricles
C. Atrioventricular node of the right atrium would
act as a secondary pacemaker
D. Atrioventricular node of the left ventricle would
act as a secondary pacemaker
7. Which layer of an artery contains endothelium?
A. Tunica interna/intima
B. Tunica media
C. Tunica externa
D. Tunica adventitia
8. What does von Willebrand factor do?
A.
Binds platelets to each other
B. Binds platelets to the sub-endothelium
C. Binds platelets to the phospholipid surface
D. Carries factor VII
9. In the treatment of angina which of the following
can be applied to the skin for absorption?
A.
Amylnitrate
B. Glyceryl trinitrate
C. Isosorbide dinitrate
D. Pentaerythritol tetranitrate
10. The exchange of gases and nutrients between
blood and tissues is a major function of:
A.
Arterioles B. Arteries
C. Capillaries D. Veins
11. Which of the following is not a function of beta
blocker?
A.
Block in the release of renin from juxtaglomerular
apparatus
B. Decrease in cardiac output
C. Decrease in heart rate
D. All of the above
12. Ligand-gated ion channels is also known as:
A. Metabotropic receptor
B. Ionotropic receptor
C. Kinase linked receptor
D. Nuclear receptor
13. The bicuspid valve __________________.
A. Found on the left side of the heart
B. Protects the auricles of the heart
C. Protects the entrance to the aorta
D. Protects the entrance to the pulmonary trunk
14. The ____________ required the thickest wall
because it has to pump the blood to the ____________
A.
Right atrium; systemic circulation
B. Right ventricle; lungs
C. Left atrium; lungs
D. Left ventricle; systemic circulation
15. Oxygenated blood from lungs enter into heart
through the ______________, and is pumped out
the _____________.
A.
Right atrium; aorta
B. Left atrium; aorta
C. Right ventricle; pulmonary arteries
D. Left ventricle; pulmonary arteries
Section 1 Pharmacology
39
16. Identify the term that describes what happens to
blood vessels when an animal is hot:
A.
Vasoconstriction
B. Vasodilation
C. None of the above
17. Homeostasis can be defined in relation to
temperature as follows:
A.
Regulation of processes to increase the body
temperature
B. Regulation of processes to keep a constant body
temperature
C. Regulation of processes to keep the skin
temperature down
D. None of the above
18. Identify the correct piece of equipment for taking
an animal’s temperature:
A.
Stethoscope B. Sphygmomanometer
C. Thermometer D. None of the above
19. Following white blood cells can perform the action
of phagocytosis?
A.
Basophils B. Eosinophils
C. Lymphocyte D. Neutrophils
20. What kind of changes occur in to RBC if the haem
group were removed from haemoglobin?
A.
They are unable to reproduce.
B. White blood cells would also unable to
reproduce.
C. Blood clot formation would be suppressed.
D. Red blood cells would unable to bind oxygen.
21. In the presence of erythropoietin hormone RBC
production stimulated in red bone marrow. From
which organ erythropoietin produced?
A.
Spleen B. Kidney
C. Liver D. Thyroid
22. From the following choose one correct statement
about erythrocytes
A.
They fight infection.
B. They clot blood.
C. Do not have any nucleus.
D. Produced by spleen.
23. Where does haematopoiesis take place?
A. Lungs B. Pancreas
C. Liver D. Bone marrow
24. When digoxin is used in a patient with congestive
heart failure (CHF), it works by exerting a positive
effect on
A.
Stroke volume
B. Total peripheral resistance
C. Heart rate
D. Blood pressure
25. The formation of a blood clot is called ………
Section 1 Pharmacology
40
…………
A.
Coagulation B. Chemotaxis
C. Leucopoiesis D. Erythropoiesis
26. Platelets are formed from what type of cell?
A. Melanocytes B. Macrophages
C. Astrocytes D. Megakaryocytes
27. Which of the following is the function of white
blood cells?
Transport oxygen
A.
B. Maintain homeostasis
C. Defend against infection
D. Produce haemoglobin
28. The coagulation process can be classically divided
into ……………….pathways.
2 B. 5
A.
C. 3 D. 6
29. The liquid portion of the blood with brinogen
and some of the clotting proteins removed is
Plasma. B. Platelets.
A.
C. Formed elements. D. Serum
30. Normal values of hemoglobin content during
pregnancy is decreased why?
By chemical reaction
A.
B. RBC are changed their shape
C. Body gains fluid and RBC become less
concentrated leads to fall in RBC count and
hemoglobin
D. None of the above
31. Albumin, globulins, and brinogen are examples
of:
Formed elements B. Platelets
A.
C. Plasma proteins D. Granulocytes
32. Nicotinic acid:
A. Decreases production of VLDL
B. Decreases LDL levels
C. Increases HDL levels
D. All the above
33. Red bone marrow cell called……………..
responsible for production of formed elements
of the blood a
Fibrinogens. B. Megakaryoblasts.
A.
C. Proerythroblasts. D. Stem cells
34. The erythropoiesis:
A. Occurs in the spleen.
B. Needed vitamin B12 and folate.
C. Is stimulated when amount of oxygen is less in
the blood.
D. Both B and D
35. In the process of hemopoiesis, myeloblasts give
rise to:
Erythrocytes. B. Basophils
A.
C. Lymphocytes. D. Monocytes.
36. Arrange the following events in the sequence they
occur when RBC are broken down:
1. Bilirubin is conjugated to glucuronic acid
2. Bilirubin is excreted in bile
3. Biliverdin is produced
4. Free bilirubin is produced
5. Hemoglobin is broken down to heme groups
and globin molecules
A.
1,2,3,4,5 B. 3,5,1,4,2
C. 4,5,1,2,4 D. 5,3,4,1,2
37. Which test evaluates the extrinsic pathway?
A. PT B. PTT
C. TT D. Closure time
38. Jaundice is a buildup of __________ in the
circulation and interstitial spaces.
A.
Lymphocytes B. Nitric oxide
C. Biliverdin D. Bilirubine
39. The most potent stimulant for heart is:
A. Adrenaline B. Noradrenaline
C. Dopamine D. Ephedrine
40. From the following choose incorrect statement
about the ABO blood group:
A.
A person whose blood group is O can donate
blood to individuals having A, B, AB, or O blood
types.
B. Transfusions should be made considering the
plasma of the donor and the red blood cells of
the recipient
C. A person whose blood group is A should not
receive a transfusion from someone hiving AB
blood group
D. A person whose blood group O has both the A
and B antigens.
41. The dose of verapamil is:
A. 4 to 6 gm per day
B. 40 to 80 gm thrice daily
C. 1 to 10 mg thrice daily
D. 250 mg once daily
42. Chronic use of nitrites may lead to:
A. Allergic response
B. Addition
C. Atherosclerotic changes
D. Tolerance
43. Resperine is used in hypertension, only in low
doses because
A.
It is a very strong antihypertensive
B. Side effects become disproportionately marked
C. High doses on chronic use cause addiction
D. It has a very long duration of action
44. Which of the following is not a calcium channel
blocker?
A.
Verapamil B. Diltiazam
C. Prenylamine D. Propranolol
45. Nitroglycerin ointment in clinical use is:
A. 1% B. 2%
C. 5% D. 10%
46. From the following choose correct statements
about hemolytic disease of the newborn
A.
Before birth, bilirubin produced by broken
down hemoglobin is eliminated by the placenta.
B. Occurs in case of Rh-positive pregnancy of the
Rh-negative mother.
C. After the birth of baby this condition may
continue due to the presence of maternal
antibodies
D. Jaundice may occur if bilirubin continues to
accumulates in tissues.
47. Hematocrit is a measure of:
A. The percentage of hemoglobin in a given
volume of blood
B. The percentage of total blood volume composed
of erythrocytes.
C. The percentage of total blood volume composed
of platelets.
D. The percentage of total blood volume composed
of thrombocytes.
48. Which type of condition is directly related to bone
marrow suppression?
A.
Aplastic anemia B. Anemia
C. Sickle cell anemia D. Megaloblastic anemia
49. Chest pain that is positional or affected by
respiration is typical of which of the following:
A.
Angina pectoris
B. Pericarditis
C. Chest infection with pleural involvement
D. Nerve root pain from L3
50. Antibodies are defense substances produced by
the _____ cells.
A. T-lymphocyte B. Monocyte
C. B-lymphocyte D. Leukocyte
51. The device which is used for measure blood
pressure?
A. Barometer B. Sphygmomanometer
C. Thermometer D. None of these
52. Which is the most desirable blood pressure?
A. 180/110 mmHg B. 140/80 mmHg
C. 130/90 mmHg D. 120/80 mmHg
53. QRS complex is due to:
A. Ventricular repolarization.
B. Ventricular depolarization.
C. Atrial depolarization.
D. Atrial repolarization.
54. Which system from the following responsible for
transportation of blood around the body is:
A.
Urinary system B. Circulatory system
C. Lymphatic system D. Digestive system
55. Identify the vessel from following which is not a
part of the our blood circulatory system:
A.
Artery B. Bronchiole
C. Capillary D. Vein
56. Which of the following drugs is a class IV
antiarrhythmic that is primarily indicated for the
treatment of supraventricular tachyarrhythmias?
A.
Butilide B. Mexiletine
C. Diltiazem D. Quinidine
Section 1 Pharmacology
41
57. Normal values of red blood cell count in men is:
A. 4–5.5 million per cubic millimeter
B. 4.5–6.0 million per cubic millimeter
C. 5–6.5 million per cubic millimeter
D. 8–9.7 million per cubic millimeter
58. Apparatus used for RBC count:
A. Haemocytometer
B. Stethoscope
C. Sphygmomanometer
D. Shali’s apparatus
59. Which of the following agents has a
direct effect on the AV mode, delaying
calciumchanneldepolarization?
A.
Lidocaine B. Diltiazem
C. Bretylium D. Quinidine
60. As a general rule, arteries carry:
A. Urine B. Lymph fluid
C. Oxygenated blood D. Deoxygenated blood
61. As a general rule, veins carry:
A. Urine B. Lymph fluid
C. Oxygenated blood D. Deoxygenated blood
62. Name of muscle which is found in the heart:
A. Skeletal muscle B. Smooth muscle
C. Cardiac muscle D. All of these
63. The left side of the heart is responsible for
pumping:
A.
Pure blood to the body
B. Pure blood to the lungs
C. Impure blood to the body
D. Impure blood to the lungs
64. Peter’s heart rate is 100 beats per minute, and
his stroke volume is 50 ml per beat. Under these
conditions, what is Peter’s cardiac output?
A.
150 ml per minute
B. 500 ml per minute
C. 1500 ml per minute
D. 5,000 ml per minute
65. Carvedilol is a:
A. Selective β1 agonist B. Selective β2 agonist
C. Both agonist D. Both antagonist
66. The volume of blood in the heart at the end of
ventricular lling is the:
A.
Stroke volume
B. Ventricular volume
C. End-diastolic volume
D. End-systolic volume
67. Which one of the following structures is not
required for the heart to beat?
A.
Motor neuron B. Intercalated disc
C. Gap junction D. Myosin
68. Activation of prothrombin to thrombin is carried
Section 1 Pharmacology
42
out by:
A.
Factor VIII B. Factor V
C. Factor IX D. All of these
69. Nitrates are used as an antianginal agent by:
A. Increasing the synthesis of cyclic AMP
B. Increasing the synthesis of cyclic GMP
C. Phosphorylation of myosin light chains
D. All
70. Which one of the following lists shows structures
of the conducting system in proper order?
A.
AV node – SA node – atrioventricular bundle –
Purkinje fibers
B. AV node – SA node – Purkinje fibers
6-atrioventricular bundle
C. SA node – AV node – atrioventricular bundle –
Purkinje fibers
D. SA node – atrioventricular bundle – AV node –
Purkinje fibers
71. Which one of the following structures is NOT part
of the systemic circulation?
A.
Aorta B. Pulmonary trunk
C. Superior vena cava D. Left coronary artery
72. Due to short distance between lungs and heart,
walls of right ventricle are:
A.
Thicker than left ventricle
B. Thinner than left atrium
C. Thicker than right atrium
D. Thinner than left ventricle
73. Artery leaving from left ventricle of heart is:
A. Pulmonary artery
B. Aortic arch
C. Inferior vena cava
D. Posterior vena cava
74. Oxygen (O2) and food substances are provided to
heart through:
A.
Pulmonary arch B. Aortic arch
C. Coronary arteries D. Subclavian artery
75. Blood from various parts of body is returned to
the:
A.
Right ventricle B. Right atrium
C. Left ventricle D. Left atrium
76. Hypertension is called silent killer because:
A. It comes without obvious symptoms
B. It is the Greek word for 'silent killer'
C. People with hypertension are homicidal
D. None of these
77. The type of white blood cell which arrives at the
site of injury/infection rst is:
A.
Basophil B. Eosinophil
C. Neutrophil D. Monocyte
78. A person with eosinophilia, or greater than normal
numbers of eosinophils, is most likely suffering
from
A.
Allergies or internal parasites
B. Anemia
C. An autoimmune disease
D. Diabetes
79. Molecular weight of hemoglobin is (in Dalton):
A. 67000 B. 56000
C. 78000 D. 54000
80. Normal range of hemoglobin in infants is (in terms
of gram):
A. 12–16 B. 14–18
C. 14–20 D. 10–12
81. Which of the method is used for estimation of
hemoglobin content of blood?
A. Specific gravity method
B. Gasometric method
C. Chemical method
D. Colorimetric method
82. Visual method of hemoglobin determination is
called:
A. Shali-Hellige method
B. By neubauers chamber
C. A and B
D. Gasometric method
83. Associated side effect of loop diuretics:
A. Potassium depletion B. Ototoxicity
C. Gout D. A, B and C
84. T wave in ECG shows:
A. Ventricular depolarization
B. Ventricular repolarisation
C. Atrial depolarization
D. Atrial repolarisation
85. Example(s) of "high-ceiling" diuretic(s):
A. Triamterene B. Spironolactone
C. Bumetanide D. Amiloride
86. Associated side effect with prazosin:
A. Initial dose marked orthostatic hypotension
B. Dryness in mouth
C. Sexual dysfunctionality
D. A, B and C
87. Drug combination warfarin/vitamin K results in
a specic interaction. Identify
Antagonistic
A.
B. Increased sedation
C. No known interaction
D. Harmful only in the presence of oxidizing agent
88. Red blood cell diluting uid is:
A. Hayems solution B. Gowers solution
C. Hagers solution D. Both A and B
89. WBC count is less than normal values is called:
A. Leucocytosis B. Leucopenia
C. Polycythemia D. Anemia
90. Recording of clotting time can be done by:
A. Shalis method
B. RBC counting chamber
C. Capillary glass method
D. All are correct
91. A bean-shaped nucleus is characteristic of:
A. Lymphocytes B. Phagocytes
C. Monocytes D. Polymorphs
92. Following is a phenothiazine analog with sodium
channel blocking properties:
A.
Moricizine B. Mexiletine
C. Tocainide D. Propafenone
93. Lymphocytes and phagocytes are types of:
A. Erythrocytes B. Leucocytes
C. Thrombocytes D. antibodies
94. Chylomicrons and VLDL lipoprotein are elevated
then atherosclerosis risk is:
A.
High B. Medium
C. Low D. Not elevated
95. Which of the following drugs is a potassium
channel opener?
A.
Pinacidil B. Amioclarone
C. Azimilide D. Amiloride
96. While treating a CHF patient with cardiac
glycoside, one notices that the patient’s resting
heart rate, which previously had been 86/min is
now 40/min. This would:
A.
Probably be unrelated to drug administration
B. Be the desired response of the drug
C. Probably be the result of drug-induced heart
block
D. Be an indication for increasing the drug dose.
97. Lobed nucleus and granulated cytoplasm are
characteristics of:
A.
Lymphocytes B. Phagocytes
C. Monocytes D. Polymorphs
98. Turks solution or white blood cell diluting uid
contains:
A.
Glacial acetic acid
B. Gentian violet aqueous solution
C. Distilled water
D. All of the above
99. Each hemoglobin molecule has __________ heme
group(s) and __________ globin molecule(s).
A.
1,2 B. 1,4
C. 2,4 D. 4,2
100. Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient
of angina pectoris who is already receiving:
A.
Nifedipine
B. Felodipine
C. Verapamil
D. Isosorbide mononitrate
101. The normal haemostatic response to vascular
damage depends on three major factors except:
A.
The blood vessel wall
B. Stasis of the blood flow
C. Circulating platelets
D. Blood coagulation factors
102. What is the most common inherited bleeding disorder?
A.
von Willebrand’s disease
B. Hemophilia A
C. Hemophilia B
D. TTP
Section 1 Pharmacology
43
103. Cardiovascular effects of chronic prazosin
administration:
Causes reflex mediated tachycardia
A.
B. Causes an increase in plasma rennin
C. Higher affinity for venular alpha receptors
compared to arteriolar alpha receptors
D. Impairs renal blood flow
104. Examples of loop diuretics:
A. Mannitol
B. Bumetanide
C. Flecainide
D. Triamterene
105. Class of antihypertensive drugs particularly
useful for management of low-renin hypertension
monotherapy:
ACE inhibitors
A.
B. Loop diuretics
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. All of the above
106. Impotence is most commonly caused by which
antihypertensive agent?
A.
Calcium channel blocker
B. ACE inhibitors
C. AT1 receptor antagonist
D. Beta blockers
107. How clonidine act as a antihypertensive agent?
A. It blocks peripheral a1 adrenergic receptor
B. act as a agonist of peripheral β2 adrenergic
receptor
C. act as a agonist of central a2 adrenergic agonist
D. act as a agonist of central β adrenergic agonist
108. The risk of high blood pressure can be decreased
by:
A.
Decrease the salt intake in diet
B. Eating a balanced diet
C. Doing regular physical activity/exercise
D. All of the above
109. Choose the correct statements from the following:
A. If mother or father of a child has hypertension,
then child will also develop hypertension.
B. Young adults do not get high blood pressure
until the age of 30
C. During consultation to doctor there is no need
to inform the doctor about hypertension in your
family
D. If you have 4 siblings and if two of them have
hypertension, you need to pay more attention
towards your health.
110. What can be the signs and symptoms of high blood
pressure?
A. No symptoms B. Headache
Section 1 Pharmacology
111. For the ABO blood group, the antigens are
44
C. Dizziness D. All of these
found __________ , and the antibodies are found
___________ on the erythrocytes, on the leukocytes.
On the erythrocytes, in the plasma
A.
B. On the leukocytes, in the plasma
C. In the plasma, on the erythrocytes
D. In the plasma, on the leukocytes
112. If a person suffering from hypertension then
choose the recommended food from the following?
Choose all that apply.
A. Eating more fiber rich foods
B. Eating more fruits, vegetables, and low-fat dairy
foods
C. Reducing foods that are high in saturated fat,
cholesterol, and trans fats
D. All of the above
113. Methyldopa:
A. Lowers the heart rate and cardiac output more
than clonidine does
B. Causes reduction in renal vascular resistance
C. Has minimal CNS side effects
D. Has 80% bioavailability
114. Propranolol characteristics are:
A. It is a β specific blocker
B. Produces prominent postural hypotension
C. Decreases the stimulation of renin production
D. Its half-life is 11 hours
115. Hydralazine:
A. Dilates veins but do not have effect on arterioles
B. Not suitable with the treatment of pre-eclampsia
C. Can cause an SLE type syndrome in up to 10 –
20% of patients
D. All of the above
116. The ACE inhibitors:
A. Preventing the inactivation of bradykinin by
decreasing the activity of peptidyl dipeptidase
B. Captopril is a type of prodrug
C. Have no role in the treatment of the normotensive
diabetes
D. Used as a antihypertensive agents in late
pregnancy
117. All of the following drugs may produce problems
when combined with ACE inhibitors, except
Diclofenac B. Spironolactone
A.
C. Lithium D. Theophylline
118. The nitrates:
A. Act as an antianginal drug
B. They increase preload of heart
C. Have a direct effect on cardiac muscle to cause
a decrease in anginal symptoms
D. They are contraindicated if intracranial pressure
is increased
119. Calcium channel blockers:
A. Are not bound to plasma proteins
B. Nifedipine has less vascular potency as
compaired to verapamil
C. Felodipine inhibit insulin release
D. Diltiazem has a plasma half-life of 3–4 hours
120. From the following which calcium channel
blockers is excreted predominantly by the feces?
Nifedipine B. Felodipine
A.
C. Diltiazem D. Nimodipine
121. Example of calcium channel blockers which has
the longest plasma half-life?
Felodipine B. Diltiazem
A.
C. Amlodipine D. Nimodipine
122. Which of the following increases the risk of
digoxin induced arrhythmias?
Hyperkalaemia
A.
B. Hypercalcaemia
C. Hypermagnesaemia
D. Hyperuricaemia
123. Choose correct statement about digoxin drug:
A. Poorly lipid soluble drug
B. Extensively metabolized
C. Half-life is 40 hours
D. 80% bound to plasma proteins
124. Drugs which may increase digoxin effect include
all of the following except:
Amiodarone B. Frusemide
A.
C. Quinidine D. Antacids
125. Drugs that activate potassium channel are:
[P] Cromakalim [Q] Sumatripatan
[R] Hydralazine [S] Minoxidil
A. P and Q B. Q and R
C. Q and S D. P and S
126. Phosphodiesterase inhibitor is used as:
A. Vasoconstrictor B. Vasodilator
C. Hypotension D. Antidiuretic agent
127. The common side effects thiazide diuretic
are_______
[P] Impotence [Q] Gout
[R] Fetal toxicity [S] Renal dysfunction
A. P and Q B. Q and R
C. P and S D. R and S
128. Statin and brate which are use as
antihyperlipidemic agents have ___________ as
common side effect.
Palpitation B. Diarrhoea
A.
C. Myositis D. Flushing
129. One of the following is procoagulant drug:
A. Warfarin B. Vitamin K
C. Heparin D. Aspirin
130. Clopidogrel has the following characteristics:
[P] It is a prodrug
[Q] It is phosphodiesterase inhibitor
[R] It inhibits platelet responses to ADP and its
actions are additive with aspirin.
[S] Its action is slow and taking 3–7 days to reach
maximal effect
P and R B. Q and R
A.
C. R and S D. Q and S
131. All the following drugs act on distal tubule except:
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Chlorthalidone
C. Indapamide
D. None of the above
132. Side effect of loop diuretics is:
[P] Hypovolaemia
[Q] Hypokalaemia
[R] Hypercalcaemia
[S] Hypouricaemia
A. P and S B. Q and R
C. P and Q D. Q and S
133. Sotalol used as antidysrhymic agent acts by:
A. Sodium channel blockade
B. Calcium channel blockade
C. Potassium channel blockade
D. Beta-adrenoceptor antagonism
134. Teytrodotoxin acts by:
A. Blocking the voltage-gated sodium channel
B. Blocking the voltage-gated calcium channel
C. Blocking the renal tubule sodium channel
D. Blocking the potassium channel
135. Angiotensin II
A. Is increased in the presence of enalapril
B. Causes drops in aldosterone levels
C. Can result in water retention
D. Increases sodium excretion
136. Butoxamine is:
A. Selective β1 agonist
B. Selective β2 agonist
C. Selective β1 antagonist
D. Selective β2 antagonist
137. Tamsulosin is most clinically used for:
A. Pheochromacytoma
B. Bening prostatic hypertrophy
C. Cardiac arrest
D. Anaphylaxis
138. Antihypertensive effect of methyl dopa is by:
A. Blocking alpha-adrenergic receptor
B. Dilating the arteriolar smooth muscle
C. Stimulating the alpha-2 adrenergic receptors in
the brain stem
D. Inhibiting the angiotensin-converting enzyme
139. Precautions advisable before lovastatin therapy
include:
A.
Serum transaminase measurement
B. Slit-lamp examination of eye
C. Creatine kinase levels
D. All the above
140. All the following are antiplatelet agents except:
A. Acetylsalicylic acid
B. Acetaminophen
C. Ticlopidine
D. Dipyridamole
Section 1 Pharmacology
45
141. Which of the following antiarrhythmic drug
increases the plasma concentration of digoxin?
A.
Lidocaine B. Quinidine
C. Phenytoin D. Procainamide
142. Digitalis overdose can be reversed by
administration of:
A.
Phenytion
B. Potassium
C. Fab fragments of digoxin specific antibody
D. Calcium
143. Nitroglycerin results in all of the following,
except:
A.
Decreases the requirement of myocardium for
Oxygen
B. Decreases ventricular and diastolic pressure
C. Decreases both preload and after load
D. Decreases cardiac force
144. The treatment of CCF with diuretics include all
except:
A.
Causes reduction in preload
B. Decreases the cardiac size
C. Decreases total body stores of K
D. Causes reduction in after load
145. Which of following mechanism is responsible for
vascular smooth muscle contraction?
A.
Increasing intracellular cAMP
B. Release of intracellular calcium via inositol
triphosphate
C. Inhibiting calcium entry through voltage-gated
calcium channel
D. All of the above
146. Correct statements regarding quinidine include
all, except:
A.
Increases the sinus rate by cholinergic blockade
B. Prolongs the ERP
C. Increases the cardiac contractility
D. Causes thrombocytopaenia
147. Which of the following antihypertensive drugs
tend to elevate plasma triglycerides?
A.
Calcium channel blockers
B. Alpha-adrenergic receptor blocker
C. Thiazide diuretics
D. ACE inhibitors
148. Calcium channel blocker with predominant
peripheral action is:
A.
Nicardepine B. Verapamil
C. Nifedepine D. Diltiazem
149. Captopril exerts action by:
A. Inhibiting the rennin release
B. Inhibiting conversion of angiotensin I to II
C. Inhibiting conversion of angiotensin II to I
D. Inhibiting conversion of angiotensinogen to
angiotensin I
Section 1 Pharmacology
150. Long-term administration of nitrates can cause:
46
A. Cardiac arrhythmias
B. Anemia
C. Tolerance
D. Loss of accommodation
151. Aspirin should not be used in ____________
A. Gout
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
152. Which of the following factor increases the
secretion of renin?
A.
Fall in sodium concentration in the distal tubule
B. Reduction in renal perfusion pressure
C. PGI2
D. All
1 53. Correct statement concerning sodium nitroprusside
include all, except:
A.
Causes bradycardia
B. Dilates both aerterioles and ventricles
C. Causes thiocyanate poisoning with excessive
dose
D. Used in acute aortic dissection
154. Choose correct statement which one is the best
description of arteries:
A.
All arteries carry oxygen rich blood towards the
heart
B. All arteries have valves for the prevention of
back-flow of blood
C. All arteries carry blood away from the heart
D. All of the above
155. The circulatory pathway that carries blood from
the digestive tract towards the liver is termed the:
A.
Coronary circuit
B. Cerebral circuit
C. Hepatic portal circuit
D. Pulmonary circuit
156. Correct statement regarding quinidine is:
A. Reduces refractory period of ventricle
B. Mainly blocks calcium channel
C. Displaces digitalis from the plasma proteins
D. All of the above
157. Which of the following antihyperlipidemic drug
inhibits the synthesis of cholesterol by blocking
HMG Co-A reductase?
A.
Clofibrate B. Pravastatin
C. Probucol D. Nicotinic acid
158. Calcium channel blockers are used in cardiac
infraction because it:
A.
Increase cardiac out put
B. Increase blood pressure
C. Reduce the size of infract
D. Increase conduction along the muscle
159. What is the mechanism of nitrates?
A. Inhibiting phosphoesterase
B. Stimulating guanylate cyclase
C. β-blockers
D. Calcium-channel blocker
160. Which statin lowers serum cholesterol in patients
with homozygous familial hypercholesterolaemia?
A.
Simvastatin B. Lovostatin
C. Pravastatin D. Atorvastatin
161. Which bile acid binding resin is used in
hyperlipidemia?
A.
Colestipol B. Cilostazol
C. Probucol D. Ezetimibe
162. Which drug inhibits cholesterol absorption?
A. Colestipol B. Cilostazol
C. Probucol D. Ezetimibe
163. The risk of digitalis toxicity is significantly
increased by concomitant administration of:
A.
Triamterene B. Lidocaine
C. Captopril D. Hydrochlorthiazide
164. A patient receiving digoxin for congestive cardiac
failure is found to have an elevated serum
cholesterol. Which hypolipidemic agent should
not be prescribed?
A.
Clofibrate B. Cholestyramine
C. Lovastatin D. Niacin
165. Which drug inhibits Na+ reabsorption by blocking
luminal sodium channel and decreasing K
+
excretion?
A.
Furosemide B. Spirenolactone
C. Epleronone D. Triamterine
166. Sodium channel blocks with fast dissociation of:
A. Ivabradin B. Amiodaron
C. Flecainide D. Lidocaine
167. HMG-Co A reductase, a key enzyme in the
pathway, catalyses:
A.
Side chain cleavage in the conversion of
cholesterol to steroid hormones
B. The reduction of the thio-ester group to an
alcohol in mevalonate biosynthesis.
C. The reduction of the hydroxyl group of
mevalonate to vitamin D.
D. Steroid condensation reaction in the biosynthesis
of bile acids
168. Which calcium antagonist has the most marked
negative inotropic action, and therefore being
contraindicated in heart failure?
A.
Diltiazem B. Amlodipine
C. Verapamil D. Nifedipine
169. The mechanism of action of digitalis is:
A. Decreases intracellular sodium concentration
B. Inhibits sodium potassium ATPase
C. Activates adenyl cyclase which produces cAMP
D. Decreases release of calcium from sarcoplasmic
reticulum
170. Which one of the following drugs increase digoxin
plasma concentration by a pharmacokinetic
mechanism?
A.
Captopril B. Hydrochorothiazide
C. Lidocaine D. Quinidine
171. A drug lacking vasodilator property that is useful
in angina is:
A.
Isosorbide dinitrate B. Metoprolol
C. Nifedipine D. Nitroglycerin
172. ………………………. used in the treatment of
male impotence and activates prostaglandin E1.
receptors
A.
Alprostadil B. Fluoxetine
C. Mifepristone D. Sildenafil
173. Methylxanthine produces:
A. Vasoconstriction of blood vessels
B. Decrease the production of cAMP in mast cells
C. Bronchodilation
D. Stimulate phosphodiesterase enzyme
174. Drugs used in asthma that often cause tachycardia
and tremor include:
A.
Beclomethasone B. Cromolyn sodium
C. Ipratropium D. Metaproterenol
175. Following potassium sparing diuretic inhibits
action of aldosterone:
A.
Amiloride B. Triamterene
C. Spironolactone D. All of the above
176. Cyclosporine act by:
A. Activating calcineurin
B. Binding to cyclophilin to produce inhibition of
a cytoplasmic phosphatase enzyme
C. Block interleukin β2-receptors
D. None
177. …………………..is used to prevent embolism
during myocardial infarction
A.
Alteplase
B. Human growth hormone
C. Calcitonin
D. None of the above
178. Choose which drug from the following has the
smallest volume of distribution?
A.
Chloroquine B. Verapamil
C. Imipramine D. Warfarin
179. Cardiovascular agents which is classified
chemically as a glycoside?
A.
Nifedipine B. Digoxin
C. Flecainide D. Cholestyramine
180. Angina which is triggered by exertion, relieved
by rest or by nitroglycerin, or by both, is referred
to as:
A.
Prinzmetal’s angina B. Unstable angina
C. Classic angina D. Variant angina
181. Oxygen demand of heart’s muscle is increased by
all of the following factors, except:
A.
Exercise B. Smoking
C. Isoproterenol D. Propranolol
182. Which of the following agents used in prinzmetal’s
angina has spasmolytics actions, which increase
coronary blood supply?
Section 1 Pharmacology
47
A. Nitroglycerin B. Nifedipine
C. Timolol D. Propranolol
183. Example of mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist
which comes in a category of potassium sparing
diuretic is?
A. Amiloride B. Triamterene
C. Spironolactone D. All of the above
184. Milrinone is an example of:
A. Phosphodiesterase I inhibitor
B. Phosphodiesterase II inhibitor
C. Phosphodiesterase III inhibitor
D. Phosphodiesterase IV inhibitor
185. The action of quinidine differs from that of
digitalis in:
A. Decreasing irritability of cardiac muscle
B. Preventing passage of impulses to the ventricle
C. Increasing irritability of heart muscle
D. Reducing conductivity
186. In case of acute pain of angina pectoris, the most
effective treatment would be to administer:
A. Mannitol hexanitrate
B. Erythrityl tetranitrate
C. Sodium nitrate
D. Nitroglycerin
187. Which of the following drug is an example of
hypolipidemic class:
A. Trimethadione B. Clofibrate
C. Flucytosine D. Coumarin
188. Lidocaine is drug of choice for emergency control
of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial
infarction due to:
A. Its rapidly developing and titratable
antiarrhythmic action
B. It has little effect on myocardial depression and
hypotension
C. It has wide spectrum antiarrhythmic efficiency
in atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias
D. Both A and B
189. Antianginal drugs afford the following benet/
benets:
A. Terminate anginal attack
B. Decrease the frequency of anginal attacks
C. Retard the progression of coronary artery
disease
D. Both A and B
190. Beta-blockers are contraindicated in patient with:
A. Supraventricular tachycardia
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Coronary artery disease
D. All of these
191. Pericardial fluid is found between which two
membranes?
Section 1 Pharmacology
48
A. Fibrous pericardium and parietal pericardium
B. Visceral pericardium and epicardium
C. Parietal pericardium and visceral pericardium
D. Fibrous pericardium and mediastinum
192. The biggest vein in the body is .............................
A. In your heart B. Tree trunk vein
C. Vena cava D. Pulmonary vein
193. A common fat to cause heart attack is:
A. Unsaturated fats
B. Cholesterol
C. Monounsaturated fat
D. Bisaturated fat
194. How glyceryl trinitrate produces benecial effect
in classical angina pectoris:
A. By Increasing in total coronary blood flow
B. By Redistribution of coronary blood flow
C. By Reduction of cardiac preload
D. By Reduction of cardiac after load
195. Which of the following drugs is most likely to
accentuate variant angina?
A. Digoxin B. Furosemide
C. Enalapril D. Amrinone
196. Which of the following antianginal drugs is most
likely to produce tachycardia as a side effect?
A. Amlodipine B. Nifedipine
C. Diltiazem D. Verapamil
197. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors:
A. Do not cause postural hypotension
B. Are known to reduce blood pressure by
depleting catecholamines
C. Have a prompt hypotensive action
D. Generally, do not cause tachycardia
198. Which of the following drugs is believed to
improve microcirculation in peripheral vascular
diseases by promoting RBC exibility?
A. Cyclandelate B. Theophyline
C. Pentoxiphyline D. Nicotinic acid
199. Aspirin in small doses (50 to 150 mg per day):
A. Benefical in patients of unstable angina
B. Has thrombolytic action
C. Preferentially inhibits prostacyclin synthetase
enzyme
D. MAY alleviate need for verapamil in variant
angina
200. Digitalis was discovered by:
A. William Withering B. Ottolewi
C. Walksman D. Dale
201. Which of the following is directly acting vascular
smooth muscle relaxant?
Verapamil B. Minoxidil
A.
C. Clonidine D. Diazoxide
202. Methaemoglobinaemia can occur with high doses
of:
A. Digitalis B. Nitrites
C. Propranolol D. All of the above
203. After oral administration peak concentration of
digoxin is reached in:
A.
1 to 2 mins B. 30 to 60 mins
C. 5 to 10 mins D. 4 to 6 hours