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4. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning carcinoma of the prostate? A. Annual digital rectal examination and serum pros-
tate-specific antigen (PSA) determinations are rec-
ommended beginning at age 55. B. Lung metastasis is less common than bone metastasis. C. Radical prostatectomy is associated with a 5% inci-
dence of permanent urinary incontinence
CHAPTER 40
Urology
D. Once prostate cancer has spread, it is no longer cur-
able but can be contained by lowering serum testos-
terone and/or by administration of androgen receptor
blockers.
5. Concerning ureteric trauma, which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Retrograde pyelogram is the most sensitive test to
detect ureteral injury.
B. Bladder mobilization is not integral to repair of ure-
teric injury.
C. Kidney mobilization is not integral to repair of ure-
teric injury.
D. Use of ureteric stents is not useful in preventing post-
repair strictures.
Answer: C
The American Urological Association has advised screen­ing for men 55 to 69 years of age. The most common site of spread of prostate cancer is to the pelvic lymph nodes and bone. Radical prostatectomy is associated with early incon­tinence and erectile dysfunction. Incontinence improves sig­nificantly with time, with <1% of men, in experienced hands, suffering severe long-term problems with urinary control. (See Schwartz 11th ed., pp. 1774–1775.)
Answer: A
A retrograde pyelogram is the most sensitive test for ureteral injury. Partial injuries can be primarily repaired, although all devitalized tissues must be debrided to avoid delayed tissue breakdown and urinoma formation. Ureteral stents should be placed in this situation to facilitate healing with­out stricture. Midureteral-level injuries can be treated with a uretero- ureterostomy if a spatulated tension-free repair can be achieved. For longer defects, the bladder can be mobi­lized and brought up to the psoas muscle (psoas hitch). For additional length, a tubularized flap of bladder (Boari flap) can be created and anastomosed to the remaining ureter. (See Schwartz 11th ed., pp. 1765–1766.)
6. All of the following are TRUE concerning priapism EXCEPT: A. Priapism is defined as a persistent erection for more
than 4 hours unrelated to sexual stimulation.
B. Etiologic factors include sickle cell disease, malig-
nancy, total parenteral nutrition, and penile shaft fractures.
C. Low-flow priapism can be confirmed with a penile
blood gas determination.
D. Treatment may require injection of phenylephrine.
7. Prostatitis is typified by all of the following EXCEPT: A. Pain, dysuria, urgency. B. Fever in both acute and chronic prostatitis. C. Treatment consists of long-term antibiotics. D. Workup may include culture of expressed prostatic
secretions.
8. Which of the following statements is correct about urolithiasis? A. Stone formation is associated with diabetes. B. Uric acid stones are the most common type. C. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the most accu-
rate diagnostic test.
D. Lithotripsy is best for stones located in the middle or
distal ureter.
Answer: B
Priapism is a persistent erection for >4 hours unrelated to sexual stimulation. Risk factors include sickle cell disease or trait, malignancy, medications, cocaine abuse, certain antide­pressants, and total parenteral nutrition. Low-flow priapism can be confirmed with a penile blood gas of the cavernosal bodies demonstrating hypoxic, acidotic blood. Injection of phenylephrine (up to 200 mg in 20 mL normal saline) into the corporal bodies may be required. (See Schwartz 11th ed., pp. 1769–1770.)
Answer: B
Acute prostatitis is marked by fever, suprapubic or perineal pain, and new onset lower urinary tract symptoms, includ­ing dysuria, frequency, urgency, changes in stream caliber, or difficulty emptying the bladder. Treatment consists of a long-term course (4–6 weeks) of antibiotics. Fever is not observed in chronic prostatitis, and onset may occur over many months. Patients with chronic bacterial prostatitis may also report recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs). Differ­entiation between acute and chronic etiologies requires cul­ture of expressed prostatic secretion to confirm the presence or absence of bacteria. (See Schwartz 11th ed., p. 1761.)
Answer: A
Stone formation has been associated with obesity, metabolic syndrome, and diabetes mellitus. Stones are most commonly composed of calcium oxalate. A noncontrast computer tomography (CT) scan is the most sensitive (98%) and spe­cific (97%) examination to detect urolithiasis. Ureteroscopy is the procedure of choice for patients with middle or distal ureteral stones. (See Schwartz 11th ed., pp. 1762–1763.)
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9. Concerning benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), which of the following statements is FALSE? A. It is found in 80% of patients 70 years or older. B. Complications can include renal failure. C. Transurethral resection is the mainstay of invasive
therapeutic interventions.
D. Beta-blockers are the most common pharmacologic
intervention.
10. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning Fournier’s gangrene (necrotizing fasciitis)? A. Mortality is 25%. B. Risk factors include diabetes, obesity, and alcoholism. C. Often polymicrobial. D. Prompt surgical debridement mandatory.
11. Concerning testicular cancer, which of the following statements are TRUE? A. Second most common cancer in men ages 20–40. B. Nonseminomatous variants are the most common
subtype.
C. Radical inguinal orchiectomy is the “gold standard”
of treatment.
D. Workup includes biomarker assays for mutated p53;
overexpression of matrix metalloproteinases, and estrogen receptor.
Answer: D
The prevalence of BPH in men over the age of 50 is estimated at 50% to 75% and increases with age with a prevalence of 80% in men over the age of 70. Complications of BPH include urinary retention, incontinence, renal failure, hematuria, or recurrent infections. The first line of treatment is most com­monly pharmacotherapy for those men with bothersome symptoms; alpha blockers work by relaxing the smooth mus­cle of the prostate and bladder neck. Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) remains the mainstay of endoscopic procedures. (See Schwartz 11th ed., pp. 1763–1764.)
Answer: A
Fournier’s gangrene is a necrotizing fasciitis of the male geni­talia and perineum that can be rapidly progressive and fatal if not treated promptly. The mortality rate is as high as 67%. Risk factors for Fournier’s gangrene include perirectal abscesses, diabetes, obesity, and chronic alcoholism. The often polymi­crobial infection spreads and can dissect along Scarpa and Colles fascia. Prompt and aggressive surgical debridement of nonviable tissue and broad spectrum antibiotics are necessary to prevent further spread. (See Schwartz 11th ed., p. 1769.)
Answer: C
Testicular cancer is the most common cancer in men age 20 to 40 years and the second most common cancer in young men age 15 to 19 years. Standard initial workup includes scrotal ultrasound and serum tumors markers (α-fetoprotein, quan­titative human chorionic gonadotropin, and lactate dehydro­genase). Radical inguinal orchiectomy is the gold standard treatment for excision of the primary tumor. (See Schwartz 11th ed., pp. 1771–1772.)
CHAPTER 40
Urology
12. All of the following statements are TRUE of renal cell carcinoma (RCC), EXCEPT: A. Renal CT imaging with contrast is the definitive
radiologic test. B. Risk factors include smoking, obesity, and hypertension. C. Familial syndromes should be suspected in younger
patients and in patients with bilateral tumors. D. Renal masses of any size, if suspicious for malignancy,
require excision as the first therapeutic maneuver.
Answer: D
Most patients diagnosed with RCC in the modern era typi­cally present with an incidentally discovered renal mass on the abdominal radiographic imaging. Renal computed tomography (CT) imaging with intravenous contrast remains the single most important radiographic test to determine the nature of the mass. Major recognized risk factors for RCC include obesity and hypertension. Familial RCC subtypes with classical clinical manifestations are also well described. Management options for small renal masses (<4 cm) include active surveillance, thermoablative techniques, or surgical excision. Percutaneous or laparoscopic techniques (cryo­ablation, radiofrequency ablation, high intensity-focused ultrasound) have been used to treat small renal masses, but they are associated with an increased risk of local recurrence. (See Schwartz 11th ed., pp. 1772–1773.)
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CHAPTER 41
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Gynecology
1. Concerning uterine leiomyoma, all of the following are TRUE EXCEPT: A. It is most common pelvic tumor. B. It has a racial predilection. C. It is classified according to anatomic location. D. It rarely necessitates hysterectomy.
Answer: D
Leiomyoma, also known colloquially as fibroids, are the most common female pelvic tumor and occur in response to growth of the uterine smooth muscle cells (myometrium). They are common in the reproductive years, and by age 50, at least 60% of white and up to 80% of black women are or have been affected. Leiomyoma are described according to their anatomic location (Fig. 41-1) as intramural, subserosal, sub­mucosal, pedunculated, cervical, and rarely ectopic. Most are asymptomatic; however, abnormal uterine bleeding caused by leiomyoma is the most common indication for hysterectomy in the United States. (See Schwartz 11th ed., p. 1795.)
Intramural
Intercavitary
Pedunculated
Subserous
Submucous
2. Typical indications for cesarean delivery include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Questionable fetal status. B. Breech presentation. C. Cephalopelvic disproportion. D. Maternal coagulopathy.
Prolapsed
FIG. 41-1. Types of uterine myomas.
Answer: D
Typical indications for cesarean delivery include question­able fetal status, breech or other maIpresentations, triplet and higher order gestations, cephalopelvic disproportion, failure to progress, placenta previa, and active genital herpes. (See Schwartz 11th ed., p. 1806.)
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3. Pelvic floor dysfunction includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. Urinary incontinence. B. Pelvic organ prolapse. C. Fecal incontinence. D. Dyspareunia.
4. All of the following are TRUE concerning stress inconti-
CHAPTER 41
nence EXCEPT: A. It can be due to lack of urethrovaginal support. B. It can be due to intrinsic sphincter deficiency. C. Goal of surgical repair is to create a partial urethral
obstruction.
D. Urethral rein plantation is sometimes necessary if
other approaches fail.
Gynecology
5. Concerning vuIvar carcinoma, all of the following are TRUE EXCEPT: A. Etiology may be due to an human papillomavirus
(HPV)-dependent pathway of carcinogenesis. B. Approximately 50% are squamous lesions. C. Hematogenous dissemination is rare. D. Staging and primary surgical treatment are typically
performed as a single procedure.
Answer: D
Pelvic floor disorders can be categorized, from an urogyne­cologic perspective, into three main topics: female urinary incontinence and voiding dysfunction, pelvic organ pro­lapse, and disorders of defecation. (See Schwartz 11th ed., pp. 1807–1809.)
Answer: D
Stress incontinence is believed to be caused by lack of uretero­vaginal support (urethral hypermobility) or intrinsic sphincter deficiency (ISD). ISD is a term applied to a subset of stress­incontinent patients who have particularly severe symptoms, including urine leakage with minimal exertion. This condition is often recognized clinically as the low pressure or “drainpipe” urethra. The urethral sphincter mechanism in these patients is severely damaged, limiting cooptation of the urethra. Standard surgical procedures used to correct stress inconti­nence share a common feature: partial urethral obstruction that achieves urethral closure under stress. (See Schwartz 11th ed., pp. 1808–1809.)
Answer: B
Evidence supports a HPV-dependent pathway of carcinogen­esis. Vulvar carcinomas are squamous in 90% of cases. Spread of vulvar carcinoma is by direct local extension and via lym­phatic microembolization. Hematogenous spread is uncom­mon. Staging and primary surgical treatment are typically performed as a single procedure and tailored to the individual patient. (See Schwartz 11th ed., pp. 1809–1810.)
6. Which of the following is FALSE concerning epithelial ovarian cancer (EOC) risk factors? A. Risk factors include early menarche. B. Risk factors include late menopause. C. Risk factors include previous hysterectomy. D. Risk factors include nulliparity.
7. Concerns human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccination, which of the following is TRUE? A. Vaccination generates high concentrations of neu-
tralizing antibodies to HPVL1 protein. B. There is only one FDA-approved vaccination available. C. Vaccination should start at age 11 for girls, and age
13 for boys. D. Two doses are given 3 weeks apart.
8. Concerning endometriosis, which of the following is TRUE? A. It causes elevation of serum CA-125. B. Biopsy is routinely performed due to variability in
appearance of lesions. C. It is a premalignant lesion. D. Symptomatically mild cases are best treated with
gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH).
Answer: C
Risk factors for development of EOC include events that appear to increase the number of lifetime ovulations (eg, early menarche, late menopause, nulliparity), whereas events that decrease the number of ovulations decrease risk (eg, preg­nancy, breast feeding, oral contraceptives). Additionally, a history of tubal ligation or hysterectomy also decreases EOC risk. (See Schwartz 11th ed., pp. 1815–1820.)
Answer: A
Three HPV vaccines have been approved by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA). Vaccination generates high concentrations of neutralizing antibodies to HPV L1 protein. Current recommendations include HPV vaccination for boys and girls at age 11 and 12 years, respectively. Two doses are given 6 to 12 months apart for patients with an intact immune system. (See Schwartz 11th ed., p. 1790.)
Answer: A
Endometriosis commonly causes elevations in serum CA-125. Definitive diagnosis usually requires laparoscopy and visual­ization of the pathognomonic endometriotic implants. These appear as blue, brown, black, white, or yellow lesions that can be raised and at times puckered giving them a “gunpowder” appearance. Biopsy is not routinely done but should be obtained if the diagnosis is in doubt. Those with mild symp­toms can be managed with oral contraceptive pills and/or anti-inflammatory analgesia; moderate symptoms are treated with medroxyprogesterone acetate. Severe symptoms are
treated with gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) to
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induce medical pseudomenopause. Although endometriosis is not generally thought to be a premalignant lesion, there is an increased risk of type I ovarian cancer in women with a his­tory of endometriosis. (See Schwartz 11th ed., pp. 1802–1803.)
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9. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)? A. Etiology is sexually transmitted organisms. B. Sequellae include increased risk of ectopic pregnancy. C. Initial therapy requires intravenous antibiotics. D. Clinical criteria include an oral temperature >101° F.
10. Options for management of stress urinary incontinence include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Creation of mid urethral sling. B. Urethral bulking injections. C. Mesh reconstruction. D. Bilateral urogenital diaphragm plication.
Answer: D
Sexually transmitted organisms, especially Neisseria gonor­rhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis, are implicated in many
cases, although microorganisms that comprise the vaginal flora (eg, anaerobes, Gardnerella vaginalis, Haemophilus influ-
enza, enteric Gram-negative rods, and Streptococcus agalac- tiae) have been implicated as well. Because of the psychosocial
complexity associated with a diagnosis of PID; when possible, additional criteria should be used to enhance the specificity of the minimum clinical criteria. These include oral temper­ature >101° F (>38.3° C). Several outpatient parenteral and oral antimicrobial regimens have been effective in achieving clinical and microbiologic cure. Hospitalization for intrave­nous antibiotics may be necessitated in cases where surgical emergencies cannot be ruled out. (See Schwartz 11th ed., pp. 1803–1804.)
Answer: D
Stress incontinence is believed to be caused by lack of ure­throvaginal support (urethral hypermobility) or intrinsic sphincter deficiency. Despite wide acceptance of midurethral sling procedures, a retropubic urethropexy procedure called the Burch procedure is still performed for stress incontinence. A transurethral or periurethral injection of bulking agents is indicated for patients with intrinsic sphincter deficiency. Pelvic reconstructive surgery frequently uses polypropylene mesh to augment procedures in the hope of providing long­lasting repair. (See Schwartz 11th ed., pp. 1808–1809.)
CHAPTER 41
Gynecology
11. Concerning vaginal cancer, which of the following state­ments is TRUE? A. Squamous lesions are associated with in utero expo-
sure to DES.
B. Staging is by a combination of clinical and pathologic
assessments.
C. Early disease prognosis is >90% 5-year overall
survival.
D. Surgery is indicated for stages III and IV disease.
Answer: C
Vaginal carcinoma is a rare gynecologic malignancy and accounts for about 3% of cancers affecting the female repro­ductive system. Rare clear cell carcinoma of the vagina is associated with in utero exposure to diethylstilbestrol (DES). Vaginal cancer is staged clinically by pelvic examination, chest X-ray, cystoscopy, and proctoscopy. External beam pelvic radi­ation is the mainstay of treatment for stages II, III, and IV and may be followed by intracavitary and/or interstitial brachy­therapy. Prognosis for treated early stage disease is excel­lent with >90% 5-year survival rates. (See Schwartz 11th ed., pp. 1810–1811.)
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CHAPTER 42
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Neurosurgery
1. Which intracranial pathology is associated with the cor­rect sign or symptom? A. Medialization of the uncus and compression of the
midbrain leading to uncal herniation
B. Increased intracranial pressure (ICP) causing men-
tal status decline due to compression of the bilateral frontal lobes
C. Choroid plexus production of cerebral spinal fluid in
excess of 1L/day leading to subfalcine herniation
D. ICP classically presenting as hypotension, bradycar-
dia, and irregular respirations
Answer: A
Increased ICP can injure the brain in several ways. Focal mass lesions cause shift and herniation. Temporal lesions push the uncus medially and compress the midbrain. This phenom­enon is known as uncal herniation. Masses higher up in the hemisphere can push the cingulate gyrus under the falx cere­bri. This process is known as subfalcine herniation. Diffuse increases in pressure in the cerebral hemispheres can lead to central, or transtentorial, herniation. Increased pressure in the posterior fossa can lead to upward central herniation or downward tonsillar herniation through the foramen mag­num. Uncal, transtentorial, and tonsillar herniation can cause direct damage to the brain stem (Fig. 42-1). (See Schwartz 11th ed., Figure 42-4, p. 1831.)
1
FIG. 42-1. Schematic drawing of brain herniation patterns.
1. Subfalcine herniation. The cingulate gyrus shifts across midline under the falx cerebri. 2. Uncal herniation. The uncus (medial temporal lobe gyrus) shifts medially and compresses the midbrain and cerebral peduncle. 3. Central transtentorial herniation. The diencephalon and midbrain shift caudally through the tentorial incisura. 4. Tonsillar herniation. The cerebellar tonsil shifts caudally through the foramen magnum. (Reproduced with
permission from Wilkins RH, Rengachary SS: Neurosurgery, 2nd ed. New York, NY: McGraw Hill; 1996.)
3
2
4
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2. The lesion that can cause mass effect and rapidly kill the patient is: A. Inferior fossa lesions. B. Posterior fossa lesions. C. Progressive obtundation. D. Bradycardial lesions.
CHAPTER 42
Neurosurgery
Answer: B
The posterior fossa (brain stem and cerebellum) requires special consideration because the volume of the posterior fossa within the cranial vault is small. Posterior fossa lesions such as tumors, hemorrhage, or stroke can cause mass effect that can rapidly kill the patient in two ways. Occlusion of the fourth ventricle can lead to acute obstructive hydrocephalus, raised increased intracranial pressure (ICP), herniation, and eventually death. This mass effect can also lead directly to brain stem compression (Fig. 42-2). Symptoms of brain stem compression include hypertension, agitation, and progressive obtundation, followed rapidly by brain death. A patient exhib­iting any of these symptoms needs an emergent neurosurgi­cal evaluation for possible ventriculostomy or suboccipital craniectomy (removal of the bone covering the cerebellum). This situation is especially critical, as expeditious decompres­sion can lead to significant functional recovery. (See Schwartz 11th ed., p. 1833.)
FIG. 42-2. Maturing cerebellar stroke seen as a hypodense
area in the right cerebellar hemisphere (arrowhead) on head computed tomography in a patient with rapidly progressing obtundation 2 days after the initial onset of symptoms. Swelling of the infarcted tissue causes posterior fossa mass effect. The fourth ventricle is obliterated and not visible, and the brain stem is being compressed.
3. Post trauma day 4, a 19-year-old man with significant facial trauma and associated temporal bone articulates which of the following symptoms? A. Double vision and facial asymmetry B. Headache, light sensitivity, and fatigue C. Anosmia and rhinorrhea D. Vertigo, ipsilateral deafness, and facial paralysis
Answer: D
Fractures of the skull base are common in head-injured patients, and they indicate significant impact. They are gener­ally apparent on routine head CT, but they should be evaluated with dedicated fine-slice coronal-section CT scan to docu­ment and delineate the extent of the fracture and involved structures. If asymptomatic, they require no treatment. Skull base fractures requiring intervention include those with an associated cranial nerve deficit or cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak. A fracture of the temporal bone, for instance, can dam­age the facial or vestibulocochlear nerve, resulting in vertigo, ipsilateral deafness, or facial paralysis. A communication may be formed between the subarachnoid space and the middle ear, allowing CSF drainage into the pharynx via the Eusta­chian tube or from the ear (otorrhea). Extravasation of blood results in ecchymosis behind the ear, known as Battle’s sign.
A fracture of the anterior skull base can result in anosmia
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(loss of smell from damage to the olfactory nerve), CSF drain­age from the nose (rhinorrhea), or periorbital ecchymosis, known as raccoon eyes. (See Schwartz 11th ed., p. 1835.)
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4. In regard to the halo test, a positive indicator for cerebro­spinal fluid (CSF) is when tinged with blood will show which of the following when dropped on an absorbent tissue? A. A single ring with a darker center spot containing
blood components surrounded by a light halo of CSF
B. A double ring with a darker center spot containing
blood components surrounded by a light halo of CSF
C. A single ring with a lighter center spot containing CSF
surrounded by a darker halo of blood components
D. A double ring with a lighter center spot containing CSF
surrounded by a darker halo of blood components
5. Which of the following closed brain injury is paired with the correct description? A. Contusion, bruise of the brain from breakdown of
small blood vessels and extravasation into the brain most commonly affecting the posterior fossa
B. Diffuse axonal injury, due to acceleration and decel-
eration leading to axonal disruption and/or detach­ment which is not visible on magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
C. Concussion, temporary neuronal dysfunction lead-
ing to susceptibility to secondary brain injury
D. Traumatic brain injury, diffuse intracranial hyperten-
sion with parenchymal hyperemia visible on MRI
Answer: B
Copious clear drainage from the nose or ear makes the diag­nosis of CSF leakage obvious. Often, however, the drainage may be discolored with blood or small in volume if some drains into the throat. In indeterminate cases, it is important to consider radiographic findings on the computed tomogra­phy (CT) scan near the fracture that suggest CSF leak, such as pneumocephalus, subarachnoid, or intraparenchymal blood at the fracture site. The “halo” test assesses for a double ring when a drop of the fluid is allowed to fall on an absorbent surface, but it has been shown to have poor clinical utility. The fluid can be sent for β-2 transferrin testing, a carbohydrate­free isoform of transferrin exclusively found in the CSF; however, these tests often take 1 to 2 weeks to result and also can be difficult to incorporate into clinical practice. (See Schwartz 11th ed., p. 1835.)
Answer: C
A concussion is defined as temporary neuronal dysfunction following nonpenetrating head trauma. The head computed tomography (CT) is normal, and deficits resolve over min­utes to hours. Definitions vary; some require transient loss of consciousness, while others include patients with any altera­tion of mental status. Memory difficulties, especially amne­sia of the event, are very common. Studies have shown that the brain remains in a hypermetabolic state for up to a week after injury. The brain is also much more susceptible to injury from even minor head trauma in the first 1 to 2 weeks after concussion. This is known as second-impact syndrome, and patients should be informed that, even after mild head injury, they might experience memory difficulties or persistent headaches. Return to play guidelines after sports-related con­cussions are controversial and are under active debate. (See Schwartz 11th ed., p. 1836.)
CHAPTER 42
Neurosurgery
6. A patient who withdraws from pain, is mumbling inap­propriate words and opens his eyes to pain has a Glasgow Coma Scale score of: A. 3. B. 6. C. 9. D. 12.
TABLE 42-1 The Glasgow Coma Scale score
Motor Response Verbal Response Eye-Opening Response
Obeys commands 6 Oriented 5 Opens spontaneously 4
Localizes to pain 5 Confused 4 Opens to speech 3
Withdraws from pain 4 Inappropriate words 3 Opens to pain 2
Flexor posturing 3 Unintelligible sounds 2 No eye opening 1
Extensor posturing 2 No sounds 1
No movement 1
a
Add the three scores to obtain the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score, which can range from 3 to 15. Add “T” after the GCS if intubated and no verbal score is possible. For these
patients, the GCS can range from 3T to 10T.
Answer: C
See Table 42-1. (See Schwartz 11th ed., Table 42-2, p. 1830.)
a
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