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Файл:Ординатура / Хирургия / Библиотека им академика М.И. Перельмана / Книга_5648_Библиотеки_им_академика_М_И_Перельмана.pdf
372 Pharmaceutical Chemistry
582. For streptomycin production, the microorganisms required are:
(a) Streptomyces griseus (b) Streptomyces niger
(c) Saccharomyces cereviceae (d) All of these
583. Fumaric acid is obtained from:
(a) Penicillium sp (b) Aspergillus niger
(c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (d) Rhizopus stolonifer
584. The byproduct during streptomycin production is:
(a) Vitamin A (b) Proline
(c) Vitamin B12 (d) None of these
585. Butanol is obtained by fermenting molasses of:
(a) Clostridium butyricum and Clostridium tetanai
(b) Clostridium butyricum and Clostridium acetobutylicum
(c) Clostridium butyricum and Clostridium oceanicum
(d) Clostridium butyricum and lactobacillus
586. Industrial production of Vitamin B12 is from:
(a) Propionibacterium spp. (b) Pseudomonas spp.
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
587. The major constituents in agar are:
(a) Fats (b) Amino acids
(c) Polysaccharides (d) Polypeptides
588. Clostridium acetobutylicum is used for the production of:
(a) Acetone-Butanol (b) Ethanol
(c) Vitamin B12 (d) None of these
589. Pasteur effect discovered in 1857, is:
(a) Inhibiting effect of oxygen on the fermentation process.
(b) Aerating yeasted broth causes yeast cell growth to decrease, while conversely,
fermentation rate increases.
(c) (a) and (b)
(d) All of these
590. Citric acid is produced in aerobic conditions by:
(a) Aspergillus (b) Penicillin
(c) Mucor (d) All of these
591. Roquefort cheese is ripened by:
(a) Penicillium camemberti (b) All Penicillium species
(c) Penicillium roqueforti (d) Penicillium rhizogenes
Multiple-Choice Questions and Answers 373
592. In the citric acid production, the pH to be maintained in the fermenter is:
(a) 7.0 (b) 5.0 to 6.0
(c) 8.0 to 9.0 (d) 1.0 to 6.0
593. Petroleum degrading species include:
(a) Micrococcus (b) Nocardia
(c) Penicillium (d) All of the above
594. The penicillin produced in large-scale submerged fermentations is:
(a) Penicillin-A (b) Penicillin-D
(c) Penicillin-G (d) None of these
595. Which of the following is not a product of fermentation?
(a) Lactate (b) Oxygen
(c) Carbon dioxide (d) Ethanol
596. Curcumin is isolated from:
(a) Turmeric (b) Sunflower
(c) Garlic (d) Onion
597. Which of the following vitamins are water soluble?
(a) Vitamin D (b) Vitamin E
(c) Vitamin B and C (d) Vitamin A
598. The Neem Tree was written by:
(a) Emma Kazi and Elvis Kazi (b) Elsa Kazi
(c) Norkazi (d) Ellen Kazi
599. Which vitamin deficiency manifests itself as impaired wound healing, gastrointestinal
bleeding and sore and bleeding of oral tissues?
(a) Vitamin A (b) Folate
(c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin D
600. Vitamin C is required for the production and maintenance of:
(a) Hormone (b) Ascorbic acid
(c) Collagen (d) RBCs
601. Vitamin C helps in maintenance and repair of collagen which:
(a) Promotes PMS symptoms.
(b) Aids in digestive processes.
(c) Forms the base for all connective tissues in the body.
(d) Promotes good eyesight.
374 Pharmaceutical Chemistry
602. It is known that the yellow pigment curcumin in turmeric powder helps the body
cells to resist the infections. Recently, its exact action has been discovered. In this
context, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
I. Curcumin stimulates the rapid multiplication of WBC that destroys the infectious
microorganisms.
II. Curcumin molecules insert themselves into the cell membrane and make it
resistant to the invading microorganisms.
III Curcumin stimulates the rapid synthesis of antibodies against the invading
microorganisms.
(a) I (b) I and III
(c) II (d) I, II & III
603. Rancidity in spoiled foods is due to:
(a) Lipolytic organisms (b) Proteolytic organisms
(c) Toxigenic microbes (d) Saccharolytic microbes
604. Rancidity of stored foods is due to the activity of:
(a) Toxigenic microbes (b) Proteolytic microbes
(c) Saccharolytic microbes (d) Lipolytic microbes
605. Drug which does not belong to leaves class is:
(a) Senna (b) Digitalis
(c) Eucalyptus (d) Turmeric
606. Regarding histamine:
(a) H1 receptors occur in cardiac muscle.
(b) H2 receptor blockers include promethazine.
(c) Adrenaline is a physiologic antagonist of histamine.
(d) Histamine works on bronchiolar smooth muscle to bronchodilate it.
607. A patient of peptic ulcer was prescribed ranitidine and sucralfate in the morning
hours. Why is this combination incorrect?
(a) Ranitidine combines with sucralfate and prevents its action.
(b) Sucralfate inhibits absorption of ranitidine.
(c) Ranitidine decreases the gastric pH so sucralfate is not able to act.
(d) Combination of these two drugs produces serious side effects like agranulocytosis.
608. Which medicinal plant has high antibiotic and antibacterial properties?
(a) Sarpagandha (b) Neem
(c) Kachnar (d) Babool
609. Ranitidine (Zantac) and gastric acid secretion:
(a) Inhibits basal acid secretion.
(b) Inhibits secretion in response to vagal stimulation or feeding.
(c) (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Multiple-Choice Questions and Answers 375
610. Scurvy is due to the deficiency of:
(a) Vitamin B (b) Vitamin C
(c) Vitamin D (d) Vitamin B
611. Sources of Vitamin C do not include:
(a) Beef liver (b) Citrus fruits
(c) UV from sun (d) Leafy green vegetables
612. Histamine:
(a) Causes increased BP via potent vasoconstricting effects.
(b) Stimulates gastric acid secretion.
(c) Is produced by bacteria in ciguatera fish causing GI upset and vascular effects.
(d) Has insignificant effects on nerve endings.
613. In the treatment of gastric and duodenal ulcers:
(a) Effective initial therapy may utilize antacids, sucralfate, or famotidine.
(b) The use of ranitidine should not exceed 8 weeks in order to avoid colonization of
the stomach by bacteria.
(c) Recurrence of ulcers happens in less than 10% of patients upon cessation of
therapy with H2 antagonists.
(d) Omeprazole should be reserved for the maintenance therapy after 8 weeks of
treatment with ranitidine.
614. H2 antagonists:
(a) Irreversibly compete with histamine at H2 receptor sites.
(b) Also bind to H1 receptors.
(c) Famotidine inhibits the cytochrome P450 system.
(d) Ranitidine may increase bioavailability of ethanol by >40% in normal
individuals.
615. Antacids that are used in the treatment of duodenal ulcers:
(a) Are effective in part because they suppress gastric acid secretion.
(b) Are less efficacious than ranitidine in promoting healing of ulcers.
(c) Are usually mixtures of Al(OH)
and Mg(OH)2 which neutralize h+.
3
(d) Are more apt to cause constipation as the dosage is raised.
616. Vitamin C is also known as:
(a) Ascorbic acid (b) Citric acid
(c) Acetic acid (d) Nitric acid
617. Which of the following may address the harmful effects of urea in soil?
I. Inclusion of legumes
II. Modified nitrogen scheduling using leaf colour chart
III. Neem oil coated urea should be preferred over pilled urea
Choose the correct answer:
(a) I & II (b) II & III
(c) I & III (d) All of the above
376 Pharmaceutical Chemistry
618. To what extent are the three nitrogens of histamine ionised at blood pH?
(a) All three nitrogens are fully ionised.
(b) All three nitrogens are not ionised at all.
(c) The side chain nitrogen is fully ionised and the heterocyclic nitrogens are not
ionised.
(d) The side chain nitrogen and one of the heterocyclic nitrogens are fully ionised.
619. The action of histamine is:
(a) Slowing the heart rate
(b) Stimulation of gastric secretion
(c) Elevation of blood pressure
(d) Skeletal muscle paralysis
620. Three binding regions were proposed to be present in the binding site of the H
2
receptor. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) There is a binding region for the imidazole ring of histamine analogues which is
common for agonists and antagonists.
(b) There is a binding region which interacts ionically with the D-nitrogen of
histamine and results in agonist activity.
(c) There is a binding region further away from the imidazole ring that produces an
antagonist effect if occupied.
(d) The
D-nitrogen of histamine can only bind to the agonist binding region while
the guanyl group of N
D-guanylhistamine can only bind to the antagonist
binding region.
621. Once activated, the proton pump inhibitors bind to exposed amino acids in the
proton pump. Which amino acid is involved?
(a) Serine (b) Cysteine
(c) Lysine (d) Histidine
622. Which microorganism has been associated with the appearance of ulcers?
(a) Escherichia coli (b) Staphylococcus aureus
(c) Enterococcus faecalis (d) Helicobacter pylori
623. What bacterial enzyme aids the survival of Helicobacter pylori in the stomach?
(a) Carbonic anhydrase (b) E-Lactamase
(c) Urease (d) Transpeptidase
624. Antidote for mercury may include:
(a) Dimercaprol (b) EDTA
(c) Detoroximine (d) Naloxone
Multiple-Choice Questions and Answers 377
625. Which of the following is benzodiazepine antagonist?
(a) Naloxone (b) Physostigmine
(c) Flumazenil (d) Penicillamine
626. What would be the best treatment for cyanide poisoning:
(a) Antivena (b) Sodium thiosulfate
(c) Acetylcysteine (d) Sodium bicarbonate
627. Antidote for atropine poisoning includes:
(a) Physostigmine (b) Aminophylline
(c) Dimercaprol (d) Flunazeril
628. N-actyl cysteine may be the antidote of choice for which of the following agents?
(a) Aspirin (b) Warfarin
(c) Acetaminophen (d) Lead
629. Naloxone is the best antidote for which of the overdose agents?
(a) Opioid (b) Heavy metal
(c) Benzodiazepine (d) Zinc
630. Cyanide poisoning can cause death due to:
(a) Cyanide-RBC complex formation.
(b) Cyanide-HB complex formation.
(c) Cyanide inhibiting cytochrome oxidase.
(d) Cyanide increasing Hb levels.
631. The toxicity of methyl alcohol is due to the formation of:
(a) Ketones (b) Formaldehyde
(c) Free alcohol radicals (d) Aldehyde
632. Acetaminophen toxicity is due to:
(a) Oxidation stress (b) Active metabolite
(c) Reduction of metabolite (d) Reactive metabolite
633. Universal antidote is a mixture of:
(a) Activated charcoal
(b) Mg Oxide
(c) Tannic Acid
(d) All the above in the ratio of 2:1:1 respectively
634. Atropine is used as an antidote for:
(a) Organophosphate (b) Heavy metals
(c) Salicylates (d) Iron
635. Specific antidote for snakebites is:
(a) Detroxamine (b) Aucord
(c) Antivenom (d) Naloxone
378 Pharmaceutical Chemistry
636. Isoniazide antidote is:
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B6
(c) Vitamin B12 (d) Folic acid
637. Warfarin antidote is:
(a) Vitamin K (b) Heparin
(c) Protamine (d) Vitamin E
638. Major step of intoxication and poisoning in the supportive care treatment involves
(a) Detoxification
(b) Decontamination
(c) Toxicology lab test
(d) Evaluation & support of vital treatment (airway, breath, circulation A, B, C)
639. Which of the following compounds are considered the building blocks of nucleic
acids?
(a) Nucleotides (b) Nucleosides
(c) Monosaccharides (d) Purines
640. Proteins are formed from:
(a) Purines (b) Carbohydrates
(c) Amino acids (d) Nucleosides
641. The most infectious food-borne disease is:
(a) Tetanus (b) Dysentery
(c) Gas gangrene (d) Botulism
642. The blood volume of the average adult is approximately:
(a) 5 L (b) 10 L
(c) 15 L (d) 20 L
643. Atropine is the primary example of an important class of muscarinic antagonists
which are esters of tropic acid and which contain:
(a) Aniline and piperidine rings (b) Aniline and piperazine rings
(c) Aniline and pyrrolidine rings (d) Pyrrolidine and piperidine rings
644. Carbon monoxide binds to:
I. Hemoglobin
II. Myoglobin
III. Cytochrome oxidase
(a) I (b) III
(c) I, II & III (d) II & III
Multiple-Choice Questions and Answers 379
645. Structure activity studies of cholinergic drugs indicate that:
I. Maximum activity is achieved when the quaternary nitrogen is three carbons
removed from the ester oxo group.
II. Structures which display a quasi-ring conformation exhibit muscarinic activity.
III. One methyl group of the trimethylammonium group can be replaced by an ethyl
group with only slight loss of activity.
(a) I (b) III
(c) I & II (d) II & III
646. Mechanisms of drug interactions with acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) include:
(a) Induction of microsomal enzymes
(b) Inhibition of microsomal enzymes
(c) Inhibition of liposomal enzymes
(d) Displacement of other drugs bound to serum albumin
647. Atropine poisoning can be recognized by all of the following signs or symptoms,
except:
(a) Dry skin (b) Flushed appearance
(c) Delirium and restlessness (d) Diarrhoea
648. Which of the following antacids has cathartic side effects?
(a) Calcium carbonate
(b) Dihydroxyaluminium sodium carbonate
(c) Magnesium hydroxide
(d) Calcium sulfate
649. Sulfinpyrazone is used as a(n):
(a) Analgesic agent
(b) Antipyretic agent
(c) Uricosuric agent
(d) Agent which increases renal tubular reabsorption of uric acid.
650. Which of the following is considered the best treatment of asthma?
(a) E2-Agonists (b) E-Blockers
(c) D-Agonists (d) Cholinergic drugs
651. A Hansch analysis is carried out to relate biological activity to VDQGǑ:KLFKRIWKH
following substituents would best suit the study?
(a) SO
(b) NH
(c) NO2, CO2H, F, OCH3, NMe
(d) SO2NH2, Br, NMe2, NH2, CF3SO
, CONH2, CH3SO2, CH3CO, CN
2NH2
, OH, F, Cl, CF
2
3
2
2
380 Pharmaceutical Chemistry
652. MDR TB is defined as resistance to:
(a) More than three anti-tubercular drugs.
(b) Isoniazid and Rifampin irrespective of resistance to any other drug.
(c) INH, PZA and Rifampicin.
(d) Fluoroquinolones and at least one of the three injectable second-line drugs used
to treat TB.
653. MDR TB is defined as:
(a) MDR TB that is also resistant to fluoroquinolones and at least one of the three
injectable second-line drugs used to treat TB (amikacin, kanamycin, or
capreomycin).
(b) Resistant to two most effective first-line therapeutic drugs, isoniazid and rifampin
irrespective of resistance to any other drug.
(c) MDR TB that is resistant to either one of the injectable second-line drugs or
second-line therapeutic fluoroquinolones.
(d) Strain resistant to more than one drug (excluding co-resistance to INH and rif).
654. Chemotherapy for the treatment of infectious diseases was discovered by:
(a) Paul Ehrlich (b) Howard Florey
(c) Norman Heatley (d) Alexander Fleming
655. What is cold sterilization?
(a) Sterilization by placing the culture in ice crystals
(b) Sterilization by sonic vibrations
(c) Sterilization by –196°C temperature in the liquid nitrogen
(d) 6WHULOL]DWLRQE\DŽLUUDGLDWLRQV
656. Bandages being applied on wounds contain:
(a) Crystal violet (b) Iodine/silver nitrate
(c) Benzalkonium chloride (d) Copper sulfate
657. The metallic compound suitable to use on burns is:
(a) Copper sulfate (b) Silver nitrate
(c) Mercurochrome (d) Silver sulfadiazine
658. The germicidal activity of alcohol is due to:
(a) Denaturation of DNA (b) Dehydration of cells
(b) Coagulation of proteins (d) Both (a) and (b)
659. Chaga’s disease is also known as:
(a) Chagas-cruzi disease (b) South American Trypanosomiasis
(c) None of the above (d) Both (a) and (b)
660. Megacesophagus is one of the symptoms of:
(a) Draconitasis (b) Kala Azar
(c) Ulcer (d) Chaga’s disease
Multiple-Choice Questions and Answers 381
661. DNA fingerprinting is based on:
(a) Repetitive sequences (b) Unique sequences
(c) Amplified sequences (d) Non-coding sequences
662. Chaga’s disease is transmitted by:
(a) Sandfly (b) Reduvid bugs
(c) Tsetse fly (d) Mosquitoes
663. ‘Reye’s syndrome’ is caused by:
(a) S. pneumoniae (b) S. pyogenes
(c) Influenza (d) None of these
664. Megacolon may be seen in:
(a) Chaga’s disease (b) Draconitasis
(c) Sleeping sickness (d) Oriental sore
665. In Chaga’s disease, the causative agent Trypanosoma cruze can be seen in:
(a) Blood (b) Lymph node
(c) Bone marrow (d) All of the above
666. The drug useful to treat African sleeping sickness is:
(a) Suramin (b) Pentamidine
(c) Melarsoprol (d) All of the above
667. Sleeping sickness due to Trypanosoma infection is:
(a) Insensitive to pain (b) Prostrate lying
(c) Lethargy in man (d) All of the above
668. Dumdam fever (Kala Azar) is caused by:
(a) Leishmania tropica (b) Leishmania braziliensis
(c) Leishmania donovani (d) All of the above
669. Chicken pox is caused by:
(a) Variola virus (b) Herpes-zoster virus
(c) Varicella-zoster virus (d) All of the above
670. Sunray fungus is:
(a) Actinomyces irraeli (b) Chromoblastomycosis
(c) Streptomyces griseus (d) Cryptococcosis
671. Chicken pox is a:
(a) Air-borne disease (b) Contact disease
(c) Food-borne disease (d) Water-borne disease
672. The eruptions on the skin due to chicken pox is:
(a) Spreading centrifugally (b) Monomorphic
(c) Polymorphic (d) Not infective