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Файл:Ординатура / Хирургия / Библиотека им академика М.И. Перельмана / Книга_5648_Библиотеки_им_академика_М_И_Перельмана.pdf
362 Pharmaceutical Chemistry
484. Hypnotic drugs are used to treat:
(a) Sleep disorders (b) Parkinsonian disorders
(c) Narcolepsy (d) Psychosis
485. Parkinsonism is characterized by the following, except:
(a) Rigidity (b) Excessive salivation
(c) Flaccidity (d) Micrographia
486. Parkinson’s disease is characterized by a deficiency of:
(a) Acetylcholine in the motor cortex.
(b) Noradrenaline in the spinal motor neurons.
(c) J-amino butyric acid (GABA) in inhibitory pathways.
(d) Dopamine in the nigrostriatal pathway.
487. Select the drug whose major metabolites have therapeutically significant pharmaco-
logical activity.
(a) Oxazepam (b) Nitrazepam
(c) Diazepam (d) Triazolam
488. Hypnotic drugs should:
(a) Prevent mood swings in patients with bipolar affective disorders.
(b) Produce drowsiness, encourage the onset and maintenance of sleep.
(c) Induce absence of sensation.
(d) Reduce anxiety and exert a calming effect.
489. Which of these hypnotic drugs is an imidazopyridine derivative?
(a) Pentobarbital (b) Temazepam
(c) Zolpidem (d) Chloral hydrate
490. The hypnotic drug which is slowly absorbed is:
(a) Triazolam (b) Diazepam
(c) Phenobarbital (d) Oxazepam
491. The ultra-short acting barbiturate is:
(a) Secobarbital (b) Amobarbital
(c) Thiopental (d) Phenobarbital
492. The following barbiturate has 8–24 hours half-life:
(a) Secobarbital (b) Thiopental
(c) Phenobarbital (d) Amylobarbitone
493. The hypnotic benzodiazepine which has the shortest half-life is:
(a) Nitrazepam (b) Diazepam
(c) Oxazepam (d) Triazolam
Multiple-Choice Questions and Answers 363
494. CYT p450 induction leads to:
(a) Barbiturate tolerance
(b) Cumulative effects
(c) Development of physical dependence
(d) “Hangover” effects
495. The hypnotic drug which is preferred for the elderly patients is:
(a) Secobarbital (b) Flurozepam
(c) Temazepam (d) Phenobarbital
496. The mechanism of barbiturate action (at hypnotic doses) is:
(a) Increasing the duration of the GABA-induced Cl-channel openings
(b) Directly activating the chloride channels
(c) Increasing the frequency of Cl-channel opening events
(d) None of the above
497. Imidazopyridines are
(a) Partial agonists of brain 5-TH1A receptors
(b) Selective agonists of the BZ1 (omega 1) subtype of BZ receptors
(c) Competitive antagonists of BZ receptors
(d) Nonselective agonists of both BZ1 and BZ2 receptor subtypes
498. The competitive antagonist of BZ receptors is:
(a) Flumazenil (b) Picrotoxin
(c) Zaleplon (d) Zolpidem
499. Flumazenil blocks the actions of:
(a) Morphine (b) Phenobarbital
(c) Zolpidem (d) Thiopental
500. Which of the following agents is preferred in the treatment of insomnia?
(a) Phenothiazide (b) Benzodiazepines
(c) Opioids (d) Barbiturates
501. Barbiturates are replaced by hypnotic benzodiazepines because of:
(a) Low therapeutic index.
(b) More hangover.
(c) High potential of physical dependence and withdrawal syndrome.
(d) All of the above
502. The ideal hypnotic agent must have:
(a) Rapid onset and sufficient duration of action.
(b) Minor effects on sleep patterns.
(c) Minimal “hangover” effects.
(d) All of the above
364 Pharmaceutical Chemistry
503. During slow wave sleep (stage 3 & 4):
(a) Dreams occur.
(b) The secretion of adrenal steroids is at its highest level.
(c) Somnambulism (sleepwalking) and nightmares occur.
(d) The secretion of somatotropin is at its lowest.
504. Hypnotic agents induce:
(a) Increased duration of REM sleep.
(b) Decreased duration of REM sleep.
(c) Decreased duration of non-REM sleep (mainly stage 2).
(d) Increased duration of slow wave sleep.
505. Which of the following hypnotic drugs causes least suppression of REM sleep?
(a) Flumazenil (b) Phenobarbital
(c) Flurazepam (d) Secobarbital
506. Although the benzodiazepines continue to be the agents of choice for insomnia, they
have:
(a) The possibility of psychological and physiological dependence.
(b) Synergistic depression of CNS with other drugs (especially alcohol).
(c) Residual drowsiness and daytime sedation.
(d) All of the above
507. Hypnotic benzodiazepines can cause:
(a) A dose-dependent increase in both REM and slow wave sleep.
(b) No change in sleep patterns.
(c) A dose-dependent decrease in both REM and slow wave sleep.
(d) A dose-dependent increase in REM sleep and decrease in slow wave sleep.
508. Which one of the following hypnotic benzodiazepines is more likely to cause rebound
insomnia?
(a) Triazolam (b) Flurazepam
(c) Temazepam (d) All of the above
509. The hypnotic drug used intravenously as anaesthetic is:
(a) Thiopental (b) Phenobarbital
(c) Flurazepam (d) Zolpidem
510. The usual cause of death due to overdose of hypnotics is:
(a) Depression of the medullar respiratory centre
(b) Hypothermia
(c) Cerebral oedema
(d) Status epilepticus
Multiple-Choice Questions and Answers 365
511. Antileprosy drug is:
(a) Imidazole (b) Prothionamide
(c) Dapsone (d) Amphotericin-B
512. In leprosy, the most effective drug for persisters is:
(a) Clofazime (b) Rifampicin
(c) Thalidomide (d) Dapson
513. Which of the following is the best description of Lepra bacilli?
(a) Acid-fast rod-shaped organism with parallel sides and rounded ends, mostly
extracellular, often grouped together like bundles of cigars.
(b) Acid-fast rod-shaped organism with parallel sides and rounded ends, chiefly
in masses within the lepra cells (globi), often grouped together like bundles of
cigars or arranged in a palisade.
(c) Acid-fast rod-shaped organism with parallel sides and rounded ends, chiefly
intracellular in Chinese letter form.
(d) Acid-fast rod-shaped organism, extracellular, Chinese letter form.
514. A 16-year-old student reported for the evaluation of multiple hypopigmented
molecules on the trunk and limbs. All of the following tests are useful in making a
diagnosis of leprosy, except:
(a) Lepromin test (b) Sensation testing
(c) Skin biopsy (d) Slit smears
515. An adult male presents hypopigmented patches on forearm, partial loss of cutaneous
sensations in affected areas, presence of thickened ulnar nerve and presence of AFB
in nasal smears. Your diagnosis is
(a) Cutaneous tuberculosis (b) Leprosy
(c) Atypical mycobacteriosis (d) Actinomycosis
516. A 46-year-old male had multiple hypoaesthetic, mildly erythematous large plaques
with elevated margins on trunk and extremities. His ulnar and lateral popliteal
nerves on both sides were enlarged. The most probable diagnosis is:
(a) Borderline leprosy (b) Borderline lepromatous leprosy
(c) Lepromatous leprosy (d) Borderline tuberculoid leprosy
517. A case of leprosy with good cell mediated immunity usually presents the following
form of disease:
(a) Lepromatous (b) Tuberculoid
(c) Indeterminate (d) Borderline
518. A 7-year-old boy having six months history of an ill-defined hypopigmented, slightly
atropic macule on the face. The most likely diagnosis is:
(a) Morphoea (b) Ca deficiency
(c) Indeterminate leprosy (d) Pityriasis alba
366 Pharmaceutical Chemistry
519. Erythma nodosum leprosum as seen in patients of leprosy on treatment is due to:
(a) Type I hypersensitivity reaction (b) Type II hypersensitivity reaction
(c) Type III hypersensitivity reaction (d) Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
520. A 25-year-old patient was diagnosed to have borderline leprosy and started on
multibacillary multidrug therapy. Six weeks later, he developed pain in the nerves
and redness and swelling of the skin lesions. The management of his illness should
include all of the following, except:
(a) Analgesics (b) Systemic corticosteroids
(c) Rest to the limbs affected (d) Stop antileprosy drugs
521. Fermentation is the:
(a) Production of alcoholic beverages by microorganisms.
(b) Mass controlled culture of microbes to synthesize products.
(c) Use of microbes in sewage and pollution control.
(d) All of the above.
522. Fermentation which is carried out by yeast is called:
(a) Pyruvic fermentation (b) Acrylic fermentation
(c) Lactic acid fermentation (d) Alcoholic fermentation
523. When energy depleted elements associated with a proton are accepted by an organic
molecule, the process is called:
(a) Fermentation (b) Respiration
(c) Anabolism (d) Catabolism
524. The best medium for the production of penicillin is:
(a) Nutrient agar (b) Corn steep liquor
(c) Sulfite waste liquor (d) Whey
525. The final electron acceptor in lactic acid fermentation is:
(a) Oxygen (b) Lactic acid
(c) Pyruvate (d) NAD
526. Industrially important antibiotic producing organisms shall be isolated by:
(a) Disk plate method (b) Direct plate method
(c) Serial dilution method (d) Crowded plate method
527. Identify the correct sequence during the industrial production of substances:
(a) Inoculation, screening, fermentation, downstream processing, removal of waste
(b) Fermentation, inoculation, removal of waste, downstream processing
(c) Fermentation, screening, inoculation, removal of waste, downstream processing
(d) Screening, inoculation, fermentation, downstream processing, removal of
waste
Multiple-Choice Questions and Answers 367
528. Role of bacteria in carbon cycle is:
(a) Photosynthesis (b) Chemosynthesis
(c) Breakdown of organic compounds (d) Assimilation of nitrogen compounds
529. Industrial alchohol will be produced by using which starter culture?
(a) Top yeast (b) Middle yeast
(c) Bottom yeast (d) Feeder yeast
530. Penicillium camemberti is used for the ripening of:
(a) Camembert cheese (b) Fruits
(c) Roqueforti cheese (d) All cheese
531. Which of the following is called the ‘brewer’s yeast’?
(a) Saccharomyces ludwigi (b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(c) Saccharomyces boulardii (d) Saccharomyces pastorianus
532. Pyruvate decarboxylase acetaldehyde + CO
reaction is specially observed in:
2
(a) Lactic acid fermenters (b) Ethanol fermenters
(c) Algae (d) Plants
533. Hetrolactic acid bacteria produce:
(a) Lactic acid only (b) Lactic acid + H
(c) Lactic acid + CO
(d) Lactic acid + alcohol + CO
2
O + CO2
2
2
534. Pyruvate dehydrogenase (PDH) is a multienzyme complex that catalyzes the
oxidative transformation of pyruvate to acetyl coenzyme A (CoA), CO
, and reducing
2
equivalents in the form of NADH. This process does not occur in:
(a) Aerobic bacteria (b) Microphilic bacteria
(c) Facultative anaerobic bacteria (d) Strictly anaerobic bacteria
535. Yeast cells are good source of:
(a) Vitamin A and D (b) Vitamin A and B
(c) Vitamin E and K (d) Vitamin B and D
536. Which is not an advantage of fermented food?
(a) Makes the food more digestible (b) Increases storage life
(c) Synthesizes vitamins (d) Decreases intestinal microflora
537. A major ingredient of penicillin production media is:
(a) Corn meal (b) Corn steep liquor
(c) Cane steep liquor (d) None of these
538. Fermentation of grains usually results in the production of:
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Brine
(c) Must (d) All of the above
368 Pharmaceutical Chemistry
539. Which of the following involves the formation of nitrate from ammonia?
(a) Ammonification (b) Denitrification
(c) Nitrification (d) Nitrogen fixation
540. Which is not the fruit or vegetable based fermented product?
(a) Wine (b) Beer
(c) Vinegar (d) Sauerkraut
541. Function of streptococcus during milk fermentation is to:
(a) Produce aerobic environment (b) Produce anaerobic environment
(c) Form lactic acid (d) All of these
542. In alcoholic fermentation, CO
is evolved during:
2
(a) Decarboxylation of pyruvic acid (b) Formation of acetaldehyde
(c) Oxidation of acetaldehyde (d) Both (a) and (b)
543. Applications of fermentation include:
(a) Cereal products (b) Dairy products
(c) Beverage products (d) All of the above
544. In the industrial production of streptomycin, the secondary metabolite or byproduct
is:
(a) Vitamin B12 (b) Vitamin C
(c) Vitamin B6 (d) Ethanol
545. During malting, barley and other grains are broken down by:
(a) Heating to 95°C (b) Lagering
(c) Amylases (d) Yeasts
546. Tobacco and tea leaves are fermented to give flavour and taste. This type of
fermentation is known as:
(a) Alcohol fermentation (b) Curing
(c) Degradation (d) Lactic acid fermentation
547. In anaerobic (without O
) environment, sugar (CnH2mOm) in dough is converted into:
2
(a) Glucose (b) Water
(c) Alcohol (d) Carbon monoxide
548. Vinegar fermentation involves:
(a) Yeasts only (b) Yeasts with lactic bacteria
(c) Yeasts with acetic acid bacteria (d) Yeasts with butyric acid bacteria
549. Milk fermentation to produce cheese is done initially by inoculating with:
(a) Streptococcus lactis and Lactobacillus spp.
(b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(c) Lactobacillus bulgaricus and Streptococcus thermophilus
(d) Acetobacter and Gluconobacter
Multiple-Choice Questions and Answers 369
550. Byproduct of acetone-butanol fermentation includes:
(a) Riboflavin (b) Penicillin
(c) Isopropanol (d) All of these
551. Casein is converted to yoghurt because of:
(a) Lactic acid (b) Salicylic acid
(c) Benzoic acid (d) Picric acid
552. The fungus used in the industrial production of citric acid:
(a) Rhizopus Oryzac (b) Fusarium moniliformae
(c) Rhizopus nigricans (d) Aspergillus nigricans
553. Fermentation which is carried out by bacteria is called:
(a) Lactic acid fermentation (b) Alcoholic fermentation
(c) Pyruvic fermentation (d) Acrylic fermentation
554. Penicilin is commercially produced by:
(a) P. notatum (b) P. chrysogenum
(c) P. citrinum (d) P. roquefortii
555. Beer may be produced by:
(a) Germinating barley (b) Fermenting grape
(c) Fermentation of rice (d) All of these
556. The most commonly used microorganism in alcohol fermentation is:
(a) Aspergilus niger (b) Bacillus subtilis
(c) Sacharomyces cerevisiae (d) Escherichia coli
557. Industrial microbiologists use “tricks” to increase the amount of chosen end product;
this may include:
(a) Manipulating the growth environment.
(b) Selecting microbial strains that lack a feedback system.
(c) Using small-scale containers to concentrate production.
(d) (a) and (c).
558. Vitamin B12 can be estimated and determined by using organism:
(a) Lactobacillus spp. (b) Lactobacillus leichmanni
(c) Bacillus subtilis (d) Escherichia coli
559. Batch fermentation is also called:
(a) Closed system (b) Open system
(c) Fed-batch system (d) Sub-merger system
370 Pharmaceutical Chemistry
560. Microorganisms used in biotechnology shall:
(a) Not grow rapidly in cheap culture medium.
(b) Be readily manipulated.
(c) Not be pathogenic.
(d) All of these
561. To differentiate lactose and non-lactose fermenters, the medium used is:
(a) Mac Conkey’s medium (b) Stuart’s medium
(c) Sugar medium (d) Citrate medium
562. Single cell production is enabled through:
(a) Batch operation systems (b) Continuous operation systems
(c) Discontinuous operation systems (d) Unique operation systems
563. Industrial microbiology, mainly depends on the phenomenon:
(a) Pasteurisation (b) Fermentation
(c) Vaccination (d) Both (b) and (c)
564. Common example of fermented beverage product is
(a) Pickles (b) Beer
(c) Bread and buns (d) Cheese and yogurt
565. Basic principle in industrial microbiology is:
(a) Suitable growth conditions (b) Fermentation
(c) Providing aseptic conditions (d) All of these
566. During milk fermentation, lactose is converted to lactic acid through:
(a) Lactobacillus (b) Streptococcus
(c) Lactococcus (d) Streptobacillus
567. For the production of ethanol, the raw material used is:
(a) Molasses (b) Cellulose
(c) Sulphite waste liquor (d) None of these
568. Pruteen is made by mixing bacteria in:
(a) Ethanol (b) Methanol
(c) Vaseline (d) Petroleum
569. Glucose oxidase is obtained from:
(a) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (b) Spirulina
(c) Aspergillus niger (d) Penicillium sp.
570. The purification and recovery of the production after fermentation is called:
(a) Upstream process (b) Downstream process
(c) Surface fermentation (d) None of these
Multiple-Choice Questions and Answers 371
571. Considering fermentation at industrial level, microorganism Bacillus is used to form:
(a) Ethanol (b) Formic acid
(c) Acrylic acid (d) Glycerol
572. If the microorganisms are allowed to nutrient medium, it is called:
(a) Submerged fermentation (b) Surface fermentation
(c) Dual fermentation (d) All of these
573. Zymase is obtained from:
(a) Saccharomyces ludwigi (b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(c) Saccharomyces boulardii (d) All of these
574. Submerged fermentations are:
(a) Batch fermentation (b) Continuous fermentation
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
575. Kojic acid is obtained from:
(a) Penicillium (b) Aspergillus
(c) Micrococcus (d) Nocardia
576. Batch fermentation is also called:
(a) Closed system (b) Open system
(c) Fed-batch system (d) None of these
577. Food fermentation includes:
(a) Leavening bread (b) Pickling
(c) Alcohol production (d) All of the above
578. L. lysine is produced from:
(a) Coryne bacterium glutamicum (b) Corynebacterium spp.
(c) Mycobacterium spp. (d) None of these
579. Bacillus thuringiensis is used as:
(a) Fungicide (b) Rodenticide
(c) Insecticide (d) Microbicidal agent
580. Microorganism used for alcohol production is:
(a) Saccharomyces sereviceae (b) Bacillus subtilis
(c) Penicillium chrysogenum (d) None of these
581. Production of substances in industrial microbiology occurs in the following sequence:
(a) Downstream processing, removal of waste, inoculation.
(b) Inoculation, fermentation, downstream processing, removal of waste.
(c) Removal of waste, inoculation, fermentation, downstream processing.
(d) Inoculation, downstream processing, fermentation, removal of waste.