Enteric bacterial pathogens. The causative agents of bacterial diseases of respiratory tract
The Task . Choose the appropriate answer:
A |
if only 1, 2 and 3 are correct |
B |
if only 1 and 3 are correct |
C |
if only 2 and 4 are correct |
D |
if only 4 is correct |
E |
if all are correct |
1. The main properties of the family Enterobacteriaceae members are which of the following? They are
1. gram-negative rods
2. glucose-positive
3. facultative anaerobes
4. oxidase-negative
2. The distinguishing features of Yersinia enterocolitica are which of the following? They are
Glucose-positive
psychrophiles
Gram-negative rods
causative agents of escherichiosis
3. Which of the following sentences characterize the diarrheagenic
E. coli?
They have specific antigenic structure
They are lactose - negative
They may contain plasmids of virulence
They are non-motile
4. The pure culture of E. coli was inoculated in the Kligler iron agar. The possible results of E. coli growth are which of the following:
yellow slant
gas bubbles in the butt
yellow butt
black dots in the butt
5. The infant’s diarrhea causative agents are which of the following:
ETEC
EAEC
EIEC
EPEC
6. The specimens to be examined for making enteric fever bacteriological diagnosis are which of the following:
Stool specimens
Bile
Blood
Blood serum
7. Which of the following apply to the distinguishing features
of Vibrio cholerae? It is
1. comma-shaped bacterium
2. monotrichous
3. motile
4. strict anaerobe
8. The Vi-indirect haemagglutination (Vi-IHA) test in typhoid fever serological diagnosis makes possible:
to identify Salmonella serogroup
to track down the source of infection
to perform serotyping of the causative agent
to confirm carrier state
9. The most Shigella sp. can be characterized by which of the following? They are:
gram-negative
glucose-positive
facultative anaerobes
motile
10. The biochemical features of Salmonella Typhi are which of the following. They are
lactose-negative
H2S-positive
glucose-positive
oxidase-positive
11. The distinguishing characteristics of Bordetella pertussis are which of the following? They
1. require the presence of absorbents in culture media
2. are transmitted via respiratory droplets
3. are gram-negative bacteria
4. are psychrophiles
12. Which of the following methods can be applied for diphtheria diagnosing?
1. Bacterioscopical examination
2. PCR
3. Bacteriological examination
4. Skin allergic test
13. The medical immunobiological preparations (MIBP) for treatment and immunoprophylaxis of whooping cough are which of the following:
1. BCG-vaccine
2. DT vaccine
3. Antitoxic antiserum
4. DPT vaccine
14. Choose the biovars of cholera causative agents:
1. El Tor
2. Inaba
3. Classic (cholera)
4. O139
15. The pure culture of Shigella flexneri was inoculated in the Kligler iron agar. The possible results of S. flexneri growth are which of the following:
red slant
black dots in the butt
yellow butt
no growth
16. The medical immunobiological preparations (MIBP) used for diphtheria treatment and prophylaxis are which of the following:
antitoxic antiserum
toxoid
DPT vaccine
bacteriophage
17. The tuberculosis causative agents are which of the following:
1. M. leprae
2. M. africanum
3. M. pneumoniae
4. M. bovis
18. Which of the following bacteria are causative agents of bacterial dysentery?
1. S. sonnei
2. EIEC
3. S. flexneri
4. EHEC
19. Which of the following methods can be applied for leprosy diagnosing?
1. Bacterioscopical examination
2. PCR
3. Skin allergic test
4. Bacteriological examination
20. The EPEC and EIEC can be distinguished from each other by which of the following features:
1. virulence factors
2. genome
3. antigenic structure
4. lactose fermentation
21. The O-indirect haemagglutination (O-IHA) test used for serological diagnosis of typhoid fever makes possible:
to identify Salmonella serogroup
to confirm carrier state
to perform serotyping of the causative agent
to confirm diagnosis in acute period of disease
22. The virulence factors of V. cholerae are which of the following:
1. Neuraminidase
2. Verotoxin
3. Cholerogen-toxin
4. Shiga-toxin
23. Which of the following specimens can be examined for bacterial dysentery diagnosing?
1. Blood
2. Vomits
3. Urine
4. Stool
24. The patient's specimens to be examined on the first week of typhoid fever suspected are which of the following?
Urine
Blood serum
Stool specimens
Blood
25. The medical immunobiological preparations (MIBP) for diphtheria treatment and immunoprophylaxis are which of the following:
1. DT vaccine
2. Antitoxic antiserum
3. DPT vaccine
4. BCG vaccine
26. Which of the following statements characterize the cultural properties of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?
1. They grow best in enriched media
2. They need oxygen-free atmosphere
3. The optimal temperature is 370C
4. They require the presence of charcoal as absorbent
27. Which of the following methods can be applied for whooping cough diagnosing?
1. Bacterioscopical examination
2. Serological examination
3. Skin allergic test
4. Bacteriological examination
28. Which of the following microbiological methods can be used for rapid diagnosing of tuberculosis?
1. IF-test
2. Microculture method (Price’ method)
3. PCR
4. Routine bacteriological examination
29. The serological examination of the patient's serum in typhoid fever makes possible to:
1. confirm the diagnosis
2. register the infection dynamics
3. confirm patient’s carrier state
4. perform serotyping of the causative agent in a patient’s specimens
30. The tuberculosis causative agents are which of the following:
1. M. tuberculosis
2. M. africanum
3. M. bovis
4. M. pneumoniae
31. The EPEC and EIEC can be distinguished from each other by which of the following features?
virulence factors
chromosomal and plasmid genes
antigenic structure
morphology and tinctorial properties
32. The distinguishing characteristics of Corynebacterium diphtheriae are which of the following: They
1. possess volutin granules
2. show picket fence arrangement in a smear
3. are gram-positive rods