4. Are psychrophiles

33. The distinguishing features of Salmonella sp. are which of the following. They are

1. glucose-negative

2. Gram-negative

3. lactose-positive

4. agglutinated by polyvalent ABCDE - antiserum

34. Which of the following sentences characterize the cultural properties of Bordetella pertussis?

1. They form mercury-like colonies

2. They are strict aerobes

3. The hemolysis zones are observed around colonies

4. They form daisy-head-like colonies on Klauberg’ medium

35. The microbiological methods used for infant’s diarrhea diagnosing are which of the following:

1. Biological examination

2. Bacterioscopical examination

3. Serological examination

4. Bacteriological examination

cholera are which of the following?

1. Blood

2. Vomit specimens

3. Urine

4. Stool specimens

37. The pure culture of Salmonella Typhi was inoculated in the Kligler iron agar. The results of S. Typhi growth supposed are which of the following:

1. black dots in the butt

2. yellow butt

3. red slant

4. yellow slant

38. The patient's specimens to be examined bacteriologically on the second week of typhoid fever suspected are which of the following:

1. Urine

2. Blood

3. Stool specimens

4. Blood serum

39. Which of the following methods can be applied for tuberculosis diagnosing?

1. Bacterioscopical examination

2. Skin allergic test

3. Bacteriological examination

4. Biological examination

40. The vaccines are available for immunoprophylaxis of which of the following diseases:

1. Tuberculosis

2. Typhoid fever

3. Whooping cough

4. Cholera

41. The bacteriological examination of blood culture in typhoid fever can be performed to:

1. identify the pathogen

2. track down the source of infection

3. choose the most effective antibiotic

4. determine the specific antibodies titer

42. Which of the following statements characterizing the cholerogen-toxin are true? It

1. It activates the intestinal adenylate cyclase

2. It is a protein

3. It causes hypersecretion of water and electrolytes

4. It is an endotoxin

43. The tubercle bacilli are which of the following:

1. M. avium intracellulare

2. M. bovis

3. M. marinum

4. M. tuberculosis

44. Which of the following culture media can be used for Shigella sp. culturing and identification?

1. MacConkey agar

2. Kligler iron agar

3. Levine EMB agar

4. Mannitol-containing Hiss medium

45. Which of the following are the reagents for Vi-IHA test used for serological examination in typhoid fever?

1. erythrocytic Vi-diagnosticum

2. preabsorbed Vi-antiserum

3. patient’s serum

4. S. Typhi O-diagnosticum

46. The toxigenic strains of C. diphtheriae can be detected by:

1. PCR

2. Genetic test

3. Ouchterloni test

4. Slide agglutination test

47. The virulence factors of C. diphtheriae are which of the following:

1. neuraminidase

2. cord-factor

3. exotoxin

4. pertissis toxin

48. Which of the following specimens can be examined to diagnose Legionnaires’ disease?

1. Blood

2. Lung tissue

3. Cerebrospinal fluid

4. Sputum

49. The microbiological methods used for cholera diagnosing are which of the following:

1. Rapid tests

2. Biological examination

3. Bacteriological examination

4. Allergic skin test

50. Which of the following pathogens can produce Shiga-like toxin?

1. EHEC

2. S. dysenteriae

3. S. flexneri

4. ETEC

51. The distinguishing characteristics of Bordetella pertussis are which of the following? They

1. require the presence of absorbents in culture media

2. are transmitted via respiratory droplets

3. are gram-negative bacteria

4. are psychrophiles

52. The culture media used for C. diphtheriae isolation are as follows:

1. Bordet-Gengou medium

2. Lewenstein-Jensen medium

3. BCYE medium

4. Klauberg’ medium

53. Which of the following diarrheagenic E.coli can cause persistent diarrhea in people living in developing countries?

1. ETEC

2. EPEC

3. EIEC

4. EAEC

54. The biovars of C. diphtheriae are which of the following:

1. gravis

2. intermedius

3. mitis

4. classic

55. Which of the following are the properties of the family Vibrionaceae members? They are

1. gram-negative

2. alkaliphiles

3. comma-shaped bacteria

4. facultative anaerobes

56. Which of the following sentences characterize the cultural properties of Salmonella sp.?

1. They produce colorless colonies on Levine EMB agar

2. They require 10% bile broth as enrichment medium

3. They produce black colonies on Bismuth Sulfide Agar

4. They are strict anaerobes

57. The distinguishing features of E. coli are which of the following: They are

1. glucose-positive

2. facultative anaerobes

3. lactose-positive

4. gram-negative bacteria

58. The distinguishing features of Yersinia sp. are which of the following: They are

1. gram-negative bacteria

2. psychrophiles

3. bipolar-stained bacteria

4. endospore-forming bacteria

59. The effective vaccines are available for immunoprophylaxis of:

1. Tuberculosis

2. Whooping cough

3. Diphtheria

4. Legionnaires’ disease

60. The diarrheagenic E. coli can be differed from opportunistic E. coli by:

1. their antigenic structure

2. their ability to utilize lactose

3. their plasmids profile

4. their motility

61. Which of the following are the serogroups of causative agents of cholera?

1. Ogawa

2. O139

3. Inaba

4. O1

62. Which of the following methods can be used for tuberculosis diagnosing?

1. IF-test