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Practice Questions
1. A 37-year-old female is on your schedule for a comprehensive audiological evaluation. Which
assessments should be completed as part of this evaluation?
a. Pure-tone air and bone conduction, SRT, and word recognition
Pure-tone air conduction, SRT, and word recognition
b.
c.
Pure-tone air and bone conduction, SRT, and acoustic immittance
Pure-tone air conduction, SRT, word recognition, and acoustic immittance
d.
Explanation: To be considered a full comprehensive audiologic evaluation, all four assessments of
pure-tone air- and bone-conduction audiometry along with SRT and word recognition must be completed. When all four are completed in one session, this is defined as a comprehensive audiologic
evaluation and billed using the CPT code 92557. Acoustic immittance is billed under separate codes
and is not necessary for a comprehensive evaluation. Therefore, answer a is the correct answer.
2. The speech recognition threshold (SRT) can be best defined as:
a. The lowest level an individual can understand at least one NU-6 word
b. The lowest level that an individual can understand at least 50% of spondee words
c. The lowest level that an individual can understand at least 75% of spondee words
d. The lowest level that an individual can understand at least 50% of NU-6 words
Explanation: The SRT is defined as the level that a patient can understand a closed set of words
50% of the time. Familiarization and verification of the words to the patient is an important step in
SRT testing as it has been shown to influence the threshold by as much as 5 dB. This is important
because one of the most common clinical uses of SRT is cross-check validation of pure-tone thresholds.
Therefore, answer b is the correct answer.
3. Your next patient of the afternoon is a 58-year-old male who was referred to you with the
complaint of right constant acute tinnitus. Based on your knowledge of tinnitus, the time frame
for acute tinnitus would mean that the patient has been suffering from tinnitus for:
a. Three months or less
b. Six months or less
c. Six months or more
d. A year or less
Explanation: When describing the duration of tinnitus, the terms chronic and acute are used. When
an individual is experiencing acute tinnitus, that means they have experienced these symptoms for 6
months or less. With that in mind, answer b is the correct answer.

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4. Mr. Friedman, a right-handed 24-year-old male with complaints of difficulty listening in
background noise and on the phone, is seen for an audiological evaluation. Otoscopy was clear
bilaterally, and the next test was immittance. Type A tympanograms were recorded bilaterally.
On reflex testing, there are present responses in the left ipsilateral and contralateral conditions,
but absent responses in the right ipsilateral and contralateral conditions. Without further
testing, where would the suspected lesion be?
a. CN VIII right
b.
CN VIII left
CN VII right
c.
d.
CN VII left
Explanation: First, we must remember that ANSI standards for MEMRs are based on the stimulus
ear. Present left ipsilateral responses suggest that the middle ear, cochlea, cranial nerve (CN) VIII,
ventral cochlear nucleus (VCN), superior olivary complex (SOC), facial nerve nuclei (FNN), and the
facial nerve (CN VII) are functioning properly on that side. Absent right ipsilateral responses suggest
that there is an issue in one of those structures on the right side. Present left contralateral responses
suggest that the left cochlea, left CN VIII, left VCN, right and left SOC, right FNN, and right CN
VII are functioning. Absent right contralateral responses suggests that the issues are either in the right
CN VIII or VCN, so a is the correct answer.
5. A 42-year-old male presents to your office with complaints of right hearing loss and tinnitus.
He stated that he is a factory worker and noted the issues suddenly after work one day when an
explosion occurred. Tympanometry revealed Type A tympanograms bilaterally. DPOAEs were
present and robust. MEMRs were present bilaterally. Audiometry revealed a unilateral moderate
to moderately severe sensorineural hearing loss in the right ear. You completed the Stenger test,
during which the patient did not respond. What would be your diagnosis?
a. Conductive hearing loss
b. Presbycusis
c. Retrocochlear hearing loss
d. Nonorganic hearing loss
Explanation: Although the patient presented with hearing loss and tinnitus in the right ear, the
objective tests (tympanometry, DPOAEs, and MEMRs) do not align with our subjective findings
(audiometry). Additionally, the patient did not respond during the Stenger test (positive Stenger). As
such, the patient would be diagnosed with nonorganic hearing loss and would be referred for further
testing such as an ABR, ENT, and/or psychology. Therefore, d is the answer.
6. Which of the following is true of otoacoustic emissions?
a. They are impacted by disorders of the auditory nerve.
b. They are by-products of OHC function and the cochlear amplifier.
c. They are not impacted by middle ear dysfunction.
d. The strength of the emission is the most important quality of the response.

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Explanation: The cochlear amplifier is created by OHC motility. As the traveling wave moves through
cochlear fluid creating displacement of the basilar membrane, there is a significant energy loss due to
viscous drag. Because of this energy loss, the cochlear amplifier is a necessary component of cochlear
function. The cochlear amplifier enhances the traveling wave as it loses energy. As a result of the
cochlear amplifier, there is displacement of the basilar membrane that creates energy movement back
toward the basal end of the cochlea generating vibration on the oval and round windows and thus
vibration of the ossicular chain and tympanic membrane. Therefore, answer b is the correct answer.
7. What is one of the main advantages of DPOAEs over TEOAEs?
DPOAEs offer better cochlear frequency resolution.
a.
b.
Middle ear status does not impact DPOAE responses.
DPOAEs can be observed with higher degrees of hearing loss.
c.
d.
DPOAEs are a better predictor of behavioral hearing thresholds.
Explanation:
Due to the continuous tone presentation used with DPOAEs, they tend to be impacted
less by subtle ear conditions compared to TEOAEs. Therefore, DPOAEs can be recorded in individuals
with up to moderate hearing losses, whereas TEOAEs are typically absent in individuals with more
than a mild hearing loss (20–30 dB HL). Therefore, answer c is the correct answer.
8. You completed a neurodiagnostic ABR on a 49-year-old male patient. You noted that wave __
was absent. As such, you completed an ECochG to attempt to see this wave, which is generated
where?
a. I; distal end of the VIIIth nerve
b. I; proximal end of the VIIIth nerve
III; distal end of the VIIIth nerve
c.
d. III; caudal brainstem; near superior olivary complex (SOC) and trapezoid body
Explanation: An ECochG is a variation of an ABR, which increases the amplitude of wave I due to
different click rates, intensity levels, and transducers. When wave I is not present, an ECochG can be
utilized. Wave I (also referred to as AP) is generated at the distal end of the VIIIth nerve, which would
make a the correct answer.
9. A 36-year-old male presents with an onset right hearing loss and tinnitus in the last 2 days. He
denied any hearing loss, tinnitus, and other audiologic symptoms prior to this occurrence. He
denied recent noise exposure, otalgia, aural fullness, and dizziness. Audiological testing revealed
normal hearing in the left ear and a moderate flat SNHL in the left ear. Tympanometry was
normal. Ipsilateral MEMRs were present in the left ear and absent in the right. Clinically, this is
most consistent with which pathology?
a. Otosclerosis
b. Sudden SNHL (SSNHL)
c. Otitis media with effusion
d. Ménière’s disease

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Explanation: Based on patient complaints, timeline (of 2 days), and audiological findings, the most
consistent pathology is SSNHL. Therefore, b is the correct answer. It is imperative for audiologists to
refer these patients to ENT for treatment as soon as possible. Treatment should be initiated as soon as
possible after the onset of the hearing loss and generally consists of systemic (oral pill) or intratympanic
injection of corticosteroids in order to reduce inflammation or swelling. Treatment is difficult because
only about 10% of patients with SSNHL have an identifiable etiology. When treatment is delayed by
2 weeks or more, it becomes less likely that permanent hearing loss will improve.
10.
A 48-year-old female presented in the clinic with the following findings: normal hearing
sensitivity in the right ear and a mild sloping to moderate SNHL in the left ear. Word
recognition scores were 92% in the right ear and 24% in the left ear. High-intensity ABR testing
revealed normal findings in the right ear and prolonged wave V latency in the left ear with a
prolonged wave I to V interpeak latency. These findings would be most consistent with which
pathology?
a. Ménière’s disease
b. Otosclerosis
c. Otitis media
d. Acoustic neuroma
Explanation: The patient is presenting with left SNHL, poorer than expected word recognition scores,
and prolonged absolute and interpeak latencies on an ABR. Additionally, findings are asymmetrical
for all testing completed. Therefore, these findings point to a suspected acoustic neuroma, which is
answer d.

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Appendix 5–A
Objective Assessment, Clinical Utility, and
Anatomical Sites of Testing
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT CLINICAL UTILITY ANATOMICAL SITE
239
Tympanometry Tympanic membrane mobility
Ossicular/middle ear pathologies
Wideband Tympanometry Tympanic membrane mobility
Middle ear pathologies
Middle Ear Muscle Reflex Diagnosis of a retrocochlear versus
cochlear site of lesion
Used as a cross-check principle for
cochlear implant testing
Acoustic Reflex Decay Diagnosis of a retrocochlear versus
cochlear site of lesion
Otoacoustic Emissions Reflect the frequency resolution of the
cochlea
Can be a predictor of hearing loss
Newborn hearing screenings
Aid in differential diagnosis between
cochlear and retrocochlear pathology
Auditory Brainstem Response
(Waves I–V)
Threshold estimation
Site-of-lesion testing and physiological
integrity of auditory pathways
Tympanic membrane
Middle ear
Tympanic membrane
Middle ear
Stapedial muscle
Low auditory brainstem pathway
Stapedial muscle
Low auditory brainstem pathway
Outer hair cells and cochlear
amplifier
Highly influenced by outer and
middle ear systems
Wave I: Distal end of CN VIII
Wave II: Proximal end of CN
VIII
Middle Latency Response
(Na-Pa-Nb-Pb)
Threshold estimation site-of-lesion
testing and physiological integrity of
auditory pathways
Wave III: Caudal brainstem;
near cochlear nucleus
Wave IV:
complex (SOC)
Wave V: Lateral lemniscus (LL)
with contributions of the inferior
colliculus (IC)
Trough after V: IC
Thalamocortical pathways
(thalamus through primary
auditory cortex)
Superior olivary
continues

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APPENDIX 5–A. continued
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT CLINICAL UTILITY ANATOMICAL SITE
Late Latency Response
(P1-N1-P2)
Threshold estimation
Physiological integrity at the level of
the primary auditory cortex
Monitoring neural plasticity and
maturation of auditory pathways,
especially after cochlear implantation
Amplification verification through
aided responses
MMN Reflects the cerebral response of
auditory memory, discrimination, and
processing abilities
P300 Reflects processing speed and neural
effort on various auditory processing
tasks
P1: Primary auditory cortex
(hippocampus, planum
temporale, lateral temporal
cortex)
Primary auditory cortex
N1:
and superior temporal gyrus
(Heschl’s gyrus)
P2: Primary and secondary
auditory cortices
Auditory cortex, frontal cortex,
hippocampus, thalamus
Primary auditory cortex, frontal
cortex, hippocampus

Cerumen
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ELECTRO-
SPEECH
PURE-TONE
TABR & NABR:
PHYSIOLOGY INTERVENTION
SRT-PTA
AUDIOMETRY
CHL or mixed
AUDIOMETRY
removal
ENT referral
reduced
absolute latencies
prolonged; normal
interpeak latencies;
reduced amplitude
ECOG:
match
Good to
excellent WRS
HL
SP/AP
All normal ENT referral
match
Good to
excellent WRS
ENT referral
Retest after
medical
management
TABR & NABR:
absolute latencies
prolonged; normal
interpeak latencies;
reduced amplitudes
SRT-PTA
match
Good to
excellent WRS
CHL or
mixed; max
conductive
component of
60 dB HL
continues
reduced to absent
SP/AP
ECOG: WNT;
COMPLAINTS/
HISTORY OTOSCOPY IMMITTANCE OAES
Reduced
to absent
Tymp: Type B
tympanogram
with small ECV
Occluding
Cerumen
Decreased
hearing; aural
fullness; otalgia
MEMR: WNT
WNT
Decay:
All normal Present Normal SRT-PTA
Bony
growths in
complaints
EC
Reduced
to absent
Type
Tymp:
As or B
tympanogram
with normal
Red EC;
debris in EC
Drainage;
aural fullness;
otalgia; foul
smell; decreased
ECV
MEMR: WNT
hearing
Decay: WNT
Appendix 5–B
PATHOLOGY
Cerumen
Differential Diagnosis
Impaction
Exostoses No major
Otitis
Externa (OE)
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