Pump_6017_Recipprocating_pumps

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Question 1: Identify part E of the illustration of a mechanically actuated diaphragm pump:

A - Suction valve B - Pump body C - Diaphragm D - Piston guide _______________________________________________ Question 2: Identify part D of the illustration of a mechanically actuated diaphragm pump:

A - Diaphragm B - Pump body C - Suction valve

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Question 3:

Identify part B of the illustration of a mechanically actuated diaphragm pump:

A - Pump body B - Diaphragm C - Piston guide D - Suction valve

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Question 4: Identify part A of the illustration of a mechanically actuated diaphragm pump:

A - Diaphragm B - Eccentric C - Piston guide D - Discharge valve

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Question 5: The type of reciprocating pump valve used for high pressure clean service is called a:

A - Flat disk valve B - Ball valve C - Wing guided valve D - Stem guided valve _______________________________________________

Question 6: The type of reciprocating pump valve suitable for hot and cold water service at lower pressures is called a: A - Wing guided valve B - Stem guided valve C - Ball valve D - Flat disk valve _______________________________________________

Question 7: A triplex double-acting pump will deliver: A - Six pulses of liquid in one crankshaft revolution B - Three pulses of liquid in one crankshaft revolution C - Six pulses of liquid in three crankshaft revolutions D - One pulse of liquid in three crankshaft revolutions _______________________________________________

Question 8: As a pumping unit, the steam-operated injector is: A - An important auxiliary and necessary on all types of reciprocating pumps B - Widely used throughout the petroleum industry C - Very efficient and easy to control D - Quite inefficient and difficult to control _______________________________________________

Question 9: All power pumps should be equipped with:

A - Drainage valves located upstream of the pump B - Relief valves on the suction end to prevent damage from overpressure C - Relief valves on the discharge to prevent damage from overpressure D - A diaphragm to separate the chamber from the liquid being pumped _______________________________________________

Question 10: Ball valves are used where free opening of suction and discharge is required. A - True B - False _______________________________________________

Question 11: The type of reciprocating pump valve used where free opening of the suction and discharge is required is called a: A - Stem guided valve B - Flat disk valve C - Ball valve D - Wing guided valve _______________________________________________

Question 12: The diaphragm pump differs from the piston or plunger-type reciprocating pump in that: A - It has no moving parts B - The fluid is in full contact with the reciprocating mechanism C - It requires no external power source to drive the pump D - The fluid is completely isolated from the reciprocating mechanism _______________________________________________

Question 13: Reciprocating pumps can be used to develop very high pressures and carefully controlled flows because the volume of liquid discharged depends only upon the _____________ and _________ of the pump. A - driver size, temperature B - dimensions, speed C - dimensions, temperature D - driver size, speed _______________________________________________

Question 14: One method of increasing the volume of flow through a single-acting plunger-type pump is to: A - Reduce the pressure at the discharge of the pump B - Increase the level of the liquid tank at the suction side of the pump C - Increase the length of the pump stroke D - Open the discharge valve wider _______________________________________________

Question 15: Diaphragm pumps are well suited for use as controlled volume or metering pumps because: A - The fluid is in full contact with the reciprocating mechanism B - Their capacity is static, ensuring consistent volume on every stroke C - The fluid is completely isolated from the reciprocating mechanism D - Their capacity can be adjusted by varying the stroke length or the stroke frequency _______________________________________________

Question 16: The discharge of a mechanically actuated diaphragm pump is usually limited to about: A - 350 kPa B - 2000 kPa C - 3500 kPa D - 350 psi _______________________________________________

Question 17: A triplex pump will complete one stroke in: A - 120 degrees B - 360 degrees C - 180 degrees D - 90 degrees _______________________________________________

Question 18: In a plunger-type pump, the distance the plunger moves in and out of the cylinder is called the: A - Length of stroke B - Compression stroke C - Stroke of the pump D - Power stroke _______________________________________________

Question 19: In a plunger type pump, the movement of the plunger in one direction is called the: A - Length of stroke B - Compression stroke C - Stroke of the pump D - Power stroke _______________________________________________

Question 20: A reciprocating pumps capacity depends on: A - changes in the discharge pressure B - the number of pumping strokes per minute C - the clearance between the gears and the pump casing D - None of the above _______________________________________________

Question 21: A piston-type duplex pump has two: A - Discharge strokes per crankshaft revolution B - Valves at each end of the pump cylinder C - Pistons D - Sources of drive power _______________________________________________

Question 22: Why should all power pumps be equipped with relief valves on the discharge? A - to prevent damage from under-pressure B - to prevent the driver from stalling C - to prevent damage from overpressure D - to allow relief from low operating temperatures _______________________________________________ Question 23: Generally, the type of valve used in a pump is determined by the properties of the liquid handled.

A - True B - False PUMP 6018_Rotary Pumps

_______________________________________________ Question 1: Match the correct rotary pump name to the illustration shown:

A - Three lobe pump B - Two lobe pump C - Extenal gear pump D - Internal gear pump

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Question 2: Match the correct rotary pump name the illustration shown:

A - Three lobe pump B - External gear pump C - Two lobe pump D - Internal gear pump

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Question 3:

The rotary pump in the illustration is called a/an:

A - Three lobe pump

B - Two lobe pump

C - External gear pump

D - Internal gear pump

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Question 4: Both lobe and gear pump types are recommended for applications in which abrasive fluids are pumped. A - True B - False _______________________________________________

Question 5: If a screw pump has three rotors and takes suction at each end of the pump, the driving power for the two idler rotors is provided by: A - An external timing chain that is driven by the central rotor B - An external gear drive that is turned by a gasoline engine C - Direct contact with the central power rotor D - Liquid pressure between the two idler rotors and the power rotor _______________________________________________

Question 6: A flexible tube pump is also called a:

A - Rotary plunger pump B - Sliding vane pump C - Shuttle block pump D - Peristaltic pump _______________________________________________

Question 7: A relief valve should be installed on the discharge side of a rotary pump to:

A - Prevent the pump driver from stalling B - Prevent damage to the pump due to excessive temperatures C - Protect the pump against excessive pressure D - Protect the pump against excessive wear _______________________________________________

Question 8: In an external gear pump, the:

A - Larger gear causes the smaller gear to turn faster causing increased pressure B - Liquid trapped between the gear teeth and casing is forced toward the discharge C - Leakage allows the fluid to progress from one gear to the next causing increased pressure D - Gears turn in the same direction and squeeze the liquid between them _______________________________________________

Question 9: Which pump consists of a housing containing two gears:

A - Sliding Vane Pump B - External Gear Pump C - Internal Gear Pump D - Three Lobe Pump _______________________________________________

Question 10: The type of rotary pump that has a series of hinged vanes is the:

A - Three lobe pump B - Sliding vane pump C - Rotary plunger pump D - Swinging vane pump

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Question 11: The type of rotary pump that uses external synchronizing gears is the: A - External gear pump B - Shuttle block pump C - Three lobe pump D - Sliding vane pump

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Question 12: As the rotor moves in a sliding vane pump, the vanes are ____________, creating a void at the suction port. As the void ___________, the liquid is discharged from the pump. A - retracted, diminishes B - forced out, increases C - forced out, diminishes D - retracted, diminishes ______________________________________________

Question 13: The internal gear pump has an externally-cut gear, which: A - Meshes with an externally-cut gear on one side of the casing B - Is positioned at the bottom and an idler or driven gear at the top C - Is positioned at the top and an idler or driven gear at the bottom D - Meshes with an internally-cut gear on one side of the casing _______________________________________________

Question 14: When the rotor revolves in a universal joint pump, four sets of flat surfaces open and close for a pumping action of: A - One discharge per revolution B - Four discharges per revolution C - Two discharges per revolution D - None of the above _______________________________________________

Question 15: When a rotary pump is in operation: A - The flow of liquid is in pulses and quite irregular B - The flow of liquid is smooth and continuous C - The discharge pressure tends to pulsate as the rotating parts intermesh D - Centrifugal force pushes the liquid to the outside of the rotating parts causing pressure accumulation _______________________________________________

Question 16: The type of rotary pump in which the gears are separated by a crescent shaped partition is the: A - External gear pump B - Shuttle block pump C - Internal gear pump D - Universal joint pump _______________________________________________

Question 17: An external gear pump can prime itself by discharging the air trapped in the casing if: A - The clearance at the ends of the gears, between the gears and the casing is small and the suction lift is at maximum B - The clearance at the ends of the gears, between the gears and the casing is wide and the suction lift is not too great C - The clearance at the ends of the gears, between the gears and the casing is small and the suction lift is not too great D - There is no clearance at the ends of the gears, between the gears and the casing and the discharge valve is closed _______________________________________________

Question 18: If your plant was handling flows that contained a high amount of solids, the best type of rotary pump to use in that process flow would be a/an: A - Three lobe pump B - Two lobe pump C - Internal gear pump D - External gear pump _______________________________________________

Question 19: The rotating lobes of a lobe pump are kept in synchronous motion because: A - The smaller lobe is used to drive the larger lobe for improved pump power B - External synchronizing gears drive the lobes C - The central lobe turns at a constant speed, keeping the outer lobes synchronized D - The largest lobe is always used to drive the smaller lobe _______________________________________________

Question 20: To prevent excessive pressure, rotary pumps should be started with: A - The discharge valve closed B - The discharge valve open C - The suction valve closed D - Both suction and discharge valves closed _______________________________________________

Question 21:

Which pump uses external synchronizing gears:

A - External Gear Pump B - Sliding Vane Pump C - Internal Gear Pump D - Three Lobe Pump _______________________________________________

Question 22: In a sliding vane pump, the rotor is: A - Positioned at the top and an idler or driven gear at the bottom B - Located between two idler rotors C - Centrally mounted in the pump cavity D - Eccentrically mounted in the pump cavity _______________________________________________

Question 23: In a three-rotor screw pump, the liquid is: A - Drawn into the middle of the rotor B - Pushed from the suction side of the pump to the discharge side C - Drawn into one end of the rotor D - Drawn into both ends of the rotor _______________________________________________

Question 24:

What pump has a cylindrical rotor turning in a concentric casing:

A - Flexible tube pump

B - Shuttle block pump

C - Swinging vane pump

D - Rotary plunger pump

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Question 25:

A three rotor screw pump features a power rotor located between two idler rotors. The liquid is drawn into _____________ of the rotor and is discharged at the ___________ of the rotors.

A - middle, both ends

B - both ends, middle

C - one end, middle

D - middle, one end

PUMP 6008_Centrifugal Pumps

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Question 1: In an enclosed, single-inlet impeller:

A - The liquid enters the eye from one side only B - The liquid passages between the vanes are closed off by the shrouds on both sides C - A full shroud closes off one side D - Liquid enters the eye from both sides _______________________________________________

Question 2: The disadvantages of axial flow pumps include low ________________ capacity and relatively ________ discharge head capability. A - suction lift, low B - flow regulation, high C - suction lift, high D - flow regulation, low _______________________________________________

Question 3: Explain why the output volume of a centrifugal pump is variable. A - because the flow decreases as the head on the pump increases B - because the pockets of trapped liquid are not evenly dispersed C - because the flow increases as the head on the pump increases D - because a centrifugal pump is a positive displacement pump _______________________________________________

Question 4: The type of impeller pictured is a/an:

A - Open impeller B - Propeller type C - Enclosed, single inlet impeller D - Semi closed, single inlet impeller _______________________________________________

Question 5: A device used in a centrifugal pump that makes the conversion from velocity energy to pressure energy more effective is the: A - Volute B - Diffuser C - Wear ring D - Impeller _______________________________________________

Question 6: The regenerative pump: A - Has diffuser vanes that can cause a sudden pressure increase at the discharge line which improves efficiency B - Is typically used in applications requiring high capacity and low pressure C - Can develop much higher discharge pressures than a centrifugal pump having the same size and speed D - Does not require a safety valve on the discharge side because of its low discharge pressure _______________________________________________

Question 7: The regenerative pump, or turbine regenerative pump features an impeller, made up of a number of vanes, which rotates in a volute stationary casing. A - True B - False _______________________________________________

Question 8: Centrifugal pumps are not subdivided into which type: A - Volute B - Mixed flow C - Diffuser D - Radial flow _______________________________________________

Question 9: The type of impeller pictured is a/an:

A - Semi closed, single inlet impeller B - Propeller type C - Open impeller D - Enclosed, single inlet impeller _______________________________________________

Question 10: A centrifugal pump balancing drum: A - Is installed on the shaft between the first impeller and the balancing chamber B - Is installed on the shaft between the last impeller and the balancing chamber C - Is stationary inside the balancing drum head D - Prevents leakage from the high pressure side of the pump to the low pressure chamber _______________________________________________

Question 11: Wearing rings for a centrifugal pump can be installed on the: A - Pump shaft B - Impeller or casing or both C - Stuffing box D - Impeller or shaft or both _______________________________________________

Question 12: Centrifugal pumps are not subdivided into which type: A - Mixed flow B - Volute C - Diffuser D - Radial flow _______________________________________________

Question 13: A centrifugal pump operates by: A - Imparting velocity energy to the fluid being handled and converting the energy to pressure B - Imparting pressure energy to the fluid being handled and converting the energy to velocity C - Trapping a volume of fluid inside a casing and forcing it to the discharge D - Heating the fluid within the casing to increase pressure _______________________________________________

Question 14: The regenerative pump, or turbine regenerative pump features an impeller, made up of a number of vanes, which rotates in a volute stationary casing. A - True B - False _______________________________________________

Question 15: The disadvantages of axial flow pumps include: A - Compact size and the inability to operate at high speeds B - Low suction lift capacity and relatively low discharge head capability C - High suction lift capacity and relatively low discharge head capability D - Large size and the inability to operate at high speeds _______________________________________________

Question 16: In multistage centrifugal pumps that are equipped with two or more impellers operating in series, the: A - Double-inlet impeller discharges into a central outlet through a diffuser B - Discharge of one impeller is connected to the suction of the next impeller C - Impellers each take suction from opposite ends of the pump D - Fluid is trapped, pressurized, and then released to the discharge _______________________________________________ Question 17: Pump wear rings are installed on an impeller by set screws, threading or: A - Soldering B - Welding C - Shrinking D - Brazing _______________________________________________

Question 18: Pumps that develop head partly by centrifugal force and partly by creating lift with propeller-like impellers are referred to as: A - Axial flow pumps B - Barrel pumps C - Mixed flow pumps D - Vertical volute pumps _______________________________________________

Question 19:

You have been tasked with designing a centrifugal pump. The pump will need to move fluids but occasionally solids will be mixed into the liquid. Which type of impeller would you recommend? Select the letter under the appropriate impeller.

A - A B - C C - E D - F E - G _______________________________________________ Question 20: Theoretically, on multistage pumps that have all the single-inlet impellers facing in one direction, the axial thrust toward the suction end of the pump will be: A - equal to the sum of the individual impeller thrusts B - greater than the sum of the individual impeller thrusts C - less than the sum of the individual impeller thrusts D - independent of the individual impeller thrusts _______________________________________________

Question 21: Wearing rings are often made of: A - Bronze or cast iron B - Steel or alloy steel C - Aluminum or brass D - Wrought iron or bronze _______________________________________________

Question 22: For multistage volute or diffuser pumps with discharge pressures above 10,000 kPa: A - Barrel casings are used to avoid the difficulty of maintaining a tight seal between the halves of a casing B - Radially split casings are used to avoid the difficulty of maintaining a tight seal between the sections of a casing C - Horizontally split casings are used to avoid the difficulty of maintaining a tight seal between the halves of a casing D - Balancing drums are used to avoid the difficulty of maintaining a tight seal between the halves of a casing _______________________________________________

Question 23: In a volute centrifugal pump, as the liquid travels through the volute casing to the discharge: A - It is trapped, pressurized, and then released to the discharge B - Its velocity energy is converted into pressure energy C - It is heated to produce pressure energy D - Its pressure energy is converted into velocity energy _______________________________________________

Question 24: A regenerative pump can develop _____________________ than a centrifugal pump of the same size and speed. A - faster flow rates B - considerably lower suction pressures C - much higher discharge pressures D - much lower discharge pressures _______________________________________________

Question 25: On low capacity, single-stage pumps, axial movement of the impeller is usually prevented by: A - Using a double-inlet impeller B - A thrust bearing on the shaft C - Using opposed impellers D - A wearing ring on the backside of the impeller

PUMP 6014_Pumps, Seals and bearings

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Question 1: All of the following are causes of mechanical seal failures in pumps except: A - No air in seal housings at start-up B - Distorted rings C - Cut gaskets D - Misaligned piping E - Scored or grooved seal faces F - Excessive pump shaft vibration _______________________________________________

Question 2: The mechanical seal configuration in which seals are mounted with one facing the suction end and one facing the discharge outlet is called: A - Back to back B - Concentric C - Face to face D - Tandem _______________________________________________

Question 3: A mechanical seal, known as a "pusher" type: A - Uses a bellows to provide the necessary spring loading for seal face contact B - Uses a dynamic secondary seal or o-ring that seals the fluid path C - Does not use a dynamic secondary seal or o-ring D - Has a single spring coil fits over the shaft and bellows _______________________________________________

Question 4: The type of bearing used in pumps in the illustration is called a:

A - Needle roller bearing B - Tapered roller bearing C - Cylinder roller bearing D - Spherical roller bearing _______________________________________________

Question 5: The gland that holds the packing inside the stuffing box must not be tightened too much, because: A - The shaft sleeve will not be able to rotate, causing excess friction B - A negative suction pressure is needed along the shaft to lubricate and cool the packing C - The shaft must be allowed to create friction against the packing for pressure D - A small amount of leakage is needed along the shaft to lubricate and cool the packing _______________________________________________

Question 6: The mating ring of a mechanical seal: A - Is positioned so that it has no contact with the sealing ring B - Holds the stuffing box packing in place C - Is held in position by a spring D - Is positioned with its face in contact with that of the sealing ring _______________________________________________

Question 7: The component of a rotating mechanical seal that is held stationary in a recessed part of the pump housing, or the seal housing cover, is referred to as: A - The shell B - The O-ring C - The mating ring D - The sealing ring _______________________________________________

Question 8: Care must be taken when tightening the gland that holds the packing in place because a small amount of _____________ is needed along the _____________ to lubricate and cool the packing. A - leakage, shaft B - air, lantern ring C - seal, bushing D - sealing liquid, stuffing box _______________________________________________

Question 9: The shell of a rotating mechanical seal is secured to the shaft by setscrews and holds the ______________ so that it turns with the shaft. A - Mating ring B - Sealing ring C - Seal cage D - Gland _______________________________________________

Question 10: The term "dynamic pump seal" means that: A - The shaft must be able to move freely while the seal prevents fluid loss B - Slight leakage must be allowed to confirm that the seal is functioning correctly C - It must be possible to tighten any seal leaks without shutting the pump down D - The shaft and seal must be able to turn together _______________________________________________ Question 11: Sleeve and shell bearings are usually: A - Oil lubricated B - Air-cooled C - Water-cooled D - Packed with grease _______________________________________________

Question 12: The type of bearing used in pumps in the illustration is called a:

A - Needle roller bearing B - Cylinder roller bearing C - Deep groove ball bearing D - Spherical roller bearing _______________________________________________

Question 13: A lantern ring is normally installed on a pump when the: A - Fluid being handled is gasoline, acid, or ammonia B - Fluid is clean, but the suction pressure is always positive C - Pump must handle fluids containing abrasive solids D - Mechanical seal is stationary and requires a cooling water supply _______________________________________________

Question 14: What should a pump that operates with negative suction pressure be equipped with to prevent air being drawn into the casing? A - lantern rings and sealing water connections B - packing rings and a pump shaft C - shaft sleeves and sleeve adjustment nuts D - stuffing boxes and auto-lubricators ______________________________________________

Question 15: Packing in the stuffing box of a pump: A - Will not wear the pump shaft B - Should stop leakage entirely C - Requires no lubrication D - Should not stop leakage entirely _______________________________________________

Question 16: The mechanical seal configuration where the sliding faces of two spring backed seals run against a common stationary seat is called: A - Back to back B - Tandem C - Concentric D - Face to face ______________________________________________

Question 17: Mechanical seals:

A - Cannot be designed to work under very high temperatures and pressures B - Reduce leakage to a minimum C - Cause wear on shafts or shaft sleeves D - Require more maintenance than packing rings _______________________________________________

Question 18: The sealing ring of a stationary mechanical seal: A - Rotates with the shaft B - Serves to distribute sealing liquid C - Is held stationary D - Does not require an O-ring

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Question 19: Needle roller bearings are very popular in the petroleum industry because their axial load-handling capacity is very high. A - True B - False _______________________________________________

Question 20: If smoke is coming from the stuffing box of a pump, the most likely cause is: A - The pump shaft is beginning to deteriorate B - The liquid in the pump is too hot and the pump is vapour locked C - The wrong packing has been installed in the gland D - The gland is over-tightened _______________________________________________

Question 21: In a rotating mechanical seal: A - A raised shoulder on the shaft accommodates the mating ring B - A shell secured to the shaft by setscrews holds the mating ring so that it turns with the shaft C - A shell secured to the shaft by setscrews holds the sealing ring so that it turns with the shaft D - There is no need for O-rings because the mating surfaces provide the seal PUMP_6015_Pump_Theory_I

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Question 1: From the diagram, select the correct static head term from the vertical distance labelled #2.

A - Friction head B - Static discharge head C - Dynamic discharge head D - Static suction head

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Question 2: From the diagram, select the correct static head term for the vertical distance labelled #1.

A - Static suction head B - Friction head C - Total static head D - Static suction lift

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Question 3: From the diagram select the correct static head term for the vertical distance labelled #1.

A - Total static head B - Static suction head C - Dynamic suction lift D - Static suction lift

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Question 4: From the diagram select the correct static head term for the vertical distance labelled #3.

A - Total dynamic head B - Static suction head C - Static discharge head D - Total static head

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Question 5: The pressure at the discharge of a water pump is 140 kPa. The temperature of the water is 80°C. Find the equivalent head in meters. (Use the Steam Tables to determine Vf). A - 146.82 m B - 14.68 m C - .146 m D - 1.47 m _______________________________________________

Question 6: When the pump is located below the suction source and the height of the liquid creates a positive head on the suction side of the pump, the pump is said to have a: A - Pressure head B - Static suction head C - Static suction lift D - Total static head _______________________________________________

Question 7: If the liquid is anything other than water, the liquid's relative density must be known in order to determine heads and pressures. The relative density of mercury is 13.6. If a column of mercury has an equivalent head of 1.0 m., the pressure produced at the bottom of the column is: A - 13, 341.6 Pa or 13.3 kPa B - 1, 334, 160 Pa or 1, 334.2 kPa C - 133, 416 Pa or 133.42 kPa D - 66 708 Pa or 66.7 kPa _______________________________________________

Question 8: To determine the relative density of a liquid other than water, you must: A - divide the density of water by the density of the other liquid B - multiply the density of the liquid by the density of water C - divide the density of water by the pressure produced by the column of the other liquid D - divide the density of the liquid by the density of water _______________________________________________

Question 9: For design purposes, there are tables available that specify the friction losses for liquids in terms of the piping material and diameters. The loss is given in terms of head, or metres of liquid, per:

A - 25 metres of pipe length B - 2.5 metres of pipe length C - 250 metres of pipe length D - 2, 500 metres of pipe length _______________________________________________

Question 10: The vertical distance from the surface of the liquid below the pump to the centreline of the pump is defined as: A - Static suction lift B - Total suction lift C - Total static suction D - Static suction head _______________________________________________

Question 11: Available net positive suction head (N.P.S.H.) is expressed in terms of metres of liquid head and is the pressure available above the vapour pressure at the: A - Pump static discharge head B - Internal pressure of the pump C - Pump suction D - Pump discharge _______________________________________________

Question 12: Although air bubbles are not desirable in liquid flow, they do not have the same destructive characteristics as do vapour voids that cause cavitation. A - True B - False _______________________________________________

Question 13: The total head effect of liquid levels on a pump is referred to as the:

A - Total static head B - Static head C - Static suction lift D - Pressure head _______________________________________________

Question 14: Calculate the velocity head that must be considered in the design of a pump that is required to move 20,000 kg of water at a velocity of 10 m/s through a 4 cm line. A - .51 B - .051 C - 51 D - 5.1 _______________________________________________

Question 15: An open, cylindrical tank contains a liquid to a height of 5.2 metres. If the density of the liquid is 3.8 x 10³ kg/m³, what is the pressure exerted by the liquid at the bottom of the tank?

A - 19.39 kPa B - 254.52 kPa C - 25.45 kPa D - 193.85 kPa _______________________________________________

Question 16: Dynamic ________________ = static suction lift + suction friction head + suction velocity head minus suction pressure head. A - suction lift B - discharge head C - static head D - suction head _______________________________________________

Question 17: Static discharge head is the vertical distance from the: A - Centreline of the pump to the surface of the liquid in the discharge tank above the pump, or to the height of free discharge B - Centreline of the pump up to the point of discharge C - Surface of the liquid below the pump to the surface of the liquid on the discharge side of the pump D - Suction side surface down to the centreline of the pump then up to the surface on the discharge side of the pump _______________________________________________

Question 18: The dynamic discharge head is the numerical sum, in metres, of all the equivalent heads and lifts acting on the suction side of a pump. A - True B - False _______________________________________________

Question 19: If a centrifugal pump is required to move 20,000 kg of water per hour at a velocity of 12 m/s through a 4 cm diameter line, the velocity head to be considered in the design is: A - 7.34 m B - 73.41 m C - 36.70 m D - 3.66 m _______________________________________________

Question 20: When a pump is located below the suction source, the dynamic suction head is the numerical result, in metres, of all the equivalent heads acting on the suction side of the pump. Therefore, the dynamic suction head is equal to: A - Static suction head + suction pressure head + suction friction head + suction velocity head B - Static suction head + suction pressure head - suction friction head - suction velocity head C - Static suction head - suction pressure head - suction friction head + suction velocity head D - Static suction head + suction pressure head + suction friction head - suction velocity head _______________________________________________

Question 21: If a column of mercury has an equivalent head of 37cm, calculate the pressure produced at the bottom of the column. Relative density of mercury is 13.6. A - 493.6 kPa B - 49.36 kPa C - 4.936 kPa D - 49.36 Pa PUMP_6016_Pump_Theory_II

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Question 1: At 15.6°C, the speed of sound through water is:

A - 146.9 m/s B - 14.69 m/s C - 1469 m/s D - 1.469 m/s _______________________________________________

Question 2: Calculate the volumetric efficiency, expressed as a percentage, for a reciprocating pump where the pump piston displaces 3.50 litres but only 3.36 litres are forced into the discharge. A - 96% B - 9.6% C - 69% D - 4% _______________________________________________

Question 3: Several factors govern the rating of a centrifugal pump. When considering the effects of pump impeller diameter, all of the following statements are untrue except: A - Capacity is directly proportional to the impeller diameter B - Power is directly proportional to the square of the impeller diameter C - Head in metres or pressure in kPa is directly proportional to the impeller diameter D - Head in metres or pressure in kPa is directly proportional to the cube of the impeller diameter _______________________________________________

Question 4: Water hammer is the result of a pressure wave that is created in a liquid by a sudden change in flow rate. The maximum intensity of the wave can be calculated by Joukowsky's Law. Of the values represented in the formula: Hwh = , all of the following are correct except:

A - c = velocity of sound in the liquid, m/s B - g = acceleration due to gravity, 9.81 m/s2 C - v = instantaneous velocity change in liquid (m/s) D - All of the above _______________________________________________

Question 5: In a reciprocating pump, the volumetric efficiency is the ratio of the volume of liquid delivered to the: A - Pump discharge B - Suction head C - Piston displacement D - Stuffing box _______________________________________________

Question 6: A pump delivers water to a tank 50 metres above the pump. Assume that the water is at 15.6°C. The power fails and the pump discharge check valve is jammed open for a few seconds and then finally slams shut. Before the check valve can close, water begins to flow backwards through the pump at a velocity of 20 metres per second, causing water hammer. What is the pressure produced by the total head produced when the water hammer occurred? A - 29,380.95 kPa B - 3054.81 kPa C - 15,181 kPa D - 29,871.45 kPa _______________________________________________

Question 7:

A pump delivers water to a tank 35 metres above the pump. Assume that the water is at 15.6°C. The pump is shutdown and the pump discharge check valve is jammed open for a few seconds and then closes. Before the valve closes, water begins to flow backwards through the pump at a velocity of 15 metres per second, causing water hammer. What is the pressure produced by the total head produced when the water hammer occurred? A - 15,681.88 kPa B - 22,745.92 kPa C - 22,033.26 kPa D - 22,376.61 kPa _______________________________________________

Question 8: In centrifugal pumps, the input power is the power supplied by the drive unit, known as:

A - Capacity B - Volumetric efficiency C - Liquid kW D - Brake kW _______________________________________________

Question 9: Based on the pump performance curves in the illustration shown here, this pump performs best when the head is between ________________, with the efficiency near____%.

A - 108 and 120, 100 B - 90 and 110, 90 C - 80 and 90, 100 D - 96 and 108, 90 _______________________________________________

Question 10: Calculate the slip, in litres/stroke, for a reciprocating pump where the piston displaces 1.50 litres but only 1.32 litres are forced into the discharge. A - 0.018 B - 1.80 C - 0.18 D - 0.8 _______________________________________________

Question 11: To calculate the work done upon the water being pumped, the correct formula is: A - Pump power = m³/s x kg/m³ x total head (m) x 9.81 m/s² B - Pump power = m³/s x kg/m³ x suction head (m) x 9.81 m/s² C - Pump power = m³/s x kg/m³ x static head (m) x 9.81 m/s² D - Pump power = m³/s x kg/m³ x discharge head (m) x 9.81 m/s² _______________________________________________

Question 12: In a system where two pumps are used to draw water from a stream and pump it 8 km to a holding pond, the best way to avoid damage from water hammer would be to stage the pump start-ups so that water hammer from the first pump has subsided before the next pump is added.

A - True B - False _______________________________________________

Question 13: Positive displacement pumps are capable of maintaining a: A - Varied discharge quantity against varying suction pressure B - Varied discharge quantity against varying discharge pressure C - Fixed discharge quantity against varying suction pressure D - Fixed discharge quantity against varying discharge pressure _______________________________________________

Question 14: Several factors govern the rating of a centrifugal pump. When considering the effects of pump speed change, all of the following statements are true except: A - Capacity (Q) is directly proportional to the square of the speed (N2) B - Capacity (Q) is directly proportional to speed (N) C - Power (kW) is directly proportional to the cube of the speed (N3) D - Head in metres or pressure in kPa (P) is directly proportional to the square of the speed (N2) _______________________________________________

Question 15: A pump delivers water to a tank 35 metres above the pump. Assume that the water is at 15.6°C. Assume the speed of sound in water is 1469 m/s at 15.6 ºC. The pump is shutdown and the pump discharge check valve is jammed open for a few seconds and then shuts. Before the check valve closes, water begins to flow backwards through the pump at a velocity of 15 metres per second, causing water hammer. Calculate the total head produced when the water hammer occurred.

A - 1856 m B - 1513 m C - 2246 m D - 2281 m _______________________________________________

Question 16: When calculating the pump input power, an allowance must be made for pump: A - Capacity B - Efficiency C - Discharge rate D - All of the above _______________________________________________

Question 17: With rotary pumps, the pump power varies: A - Directly with the discharge pressure B - With the pump speed C - Inversely with the discharge pressure D - Both a and b _______________________________________________

Question 18: Calculate the slip, in litres/stroke, for a reciprocating pump where the pump piston displaces 1.75 litres but only 1.49 litres are forced into the discharge. A - 0.26 B - .026 C - 0.851 D - 1.174 _______________________________________________

Question 19: A pump delivers water to a tank 50 metres above the pump. Assume that the water is at 15.6°C. Assume the speed of sound in water is 1469 m/s at 15.6 ºC. The power fails and the pump discharge check valve is jammed open for a few seconds and then finally slams shut. Before the check valve can close, water begins to flow backwards through the pump at a velocity of 20 metres per second, causing water hammer. Calculate the total head produced when the water hammer occurred.

A - 1547.5 m B - 1497.5 m C - 2995 m D - 3045 m CMPR_6005_Gas_Compression_-_Basic_Controls

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Question 1: A typical two-stage compressor would have an automated shutdown device that would be activated under the following condition: A - High intercooler temperature B - High lubricating oil level C - Low vibration D - High lube oil pressure

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Question 2:

A typical two-stage compressor would have an automated shutdown device that would be activated under the following condition:

A - Low lubricating oil temperature

B - Low intercooler temperature

C - Low suction scrubber liquid level

D - Cylinder lubricator low flow

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Question 3: A typical two-stage compressor would have an automated shutdown device that would be activated under the following condition: A - High lubricating oil level B - Low lubricating oil pressure C - Low lubricating oil temperature D - High lube oil pressure _______________________________________________

Question 4: The method of unloading a compressor by means of clearance pockets is used with: A - Axial compressors B - Rotary compressors C - Reciprocating compressors D - Centrifugal compressors _______________________________________________

Question 5: To prevent surging, the capacity of the compressor must: A - Be shut down immediately B - Not be allowed to fall below the surge limit C - Not produce a pressure equal to that in the system D - Be below the surge limit _______________________________________________

Question 6:

One method of preventing a compressor from going into surge is to: A - Open a vent to atmosphere when the compressor gets close to maximum capacity B - Throttle in the discharge valve and create a higher backpressure on the compressor C - Throttle in the suction to the compressor to prevent the pressure from becoming too high D - Recycle some of the discharge gas back to the suction when the flow becomes low _______________________________________________

Question 7: The method of controlling compressor output that is typically used with electric motors is: A - Variable speed control B - Bypass control C - Start and stop control D - Constant speed control _______________________________________________

Question 8: An axial flow compressor is more unstable than the centrifugal type, as its: A - Surge limit occurs at lower flows B - Output is controlled by flow transmitters C - Recycle valve is equipped with a positioner to minimize stroking time D - Surge limit occurs at higher flows _______________________________________________

Question 9: A pressure switch in the discharge side of a compressor is used to activate the: A - Stop/start control B - Variable speed control C - Bypass control D - Surge control _______________________________________________

Question 10: A variable speed control is used to:

A - Run the compressor driver at constant speed at all times B - Shut down the compressor when little or no air is required by the system C - Sense the pressure in the discharge side of the compressor D - Maintain the discharge pressure at a constant value _______________________________________________

Question 11: You are working in a gas plant when an alarm indicates that the capacity of the #3 compressor is about to fall below surge point. The compressor is an axial flow type. To correct this before surging begins, you: A - Open a discharge line blowoff valve to the suction side B - Close a discharge line blowoff valve to the suction side C - Open a suction line blowoff valve to the discharge side D - Close a suction line blowoff valve to the discharge side _______________________________________________

Question 12: A typical two-stage compressor is not normally equipped with a:

A - Lubricator shutdown B - Crankcase gauge glass C - Flow indicator D - Low discharge gas temperature shutdown _______________________________________________

Question 13:

A typical two-stage compressor is not normally equipped with a:

A - High discharge gas pressure alarm

B - High intercooler temperature alarm

C - High lube oil temperature shutdown

D - High lube oil pressure shutdown

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Question 14:

The method of controlling compressor output that prevents centrifugal compressors from surging at low flow rates is:

A - Constant speed control

B - Bypass control

C - Start and stop control

D - Variable speed control

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Question 15: The surge limit of a centrifugal compressor is the: A - Point on the pressure-volume curve where the compressor will no longer deliver to the discharge B - Maximum capacity that the compressor will deliver at any given pressure C - Absolute maximum pressure that can be developed by the compressor D - Point at which the suction pressure is greater than the discharge pressure _______________________________________________

Question 16: The bypass control ensures that the compressor is always loaded to: A - Maximum capacity B - Below the flow rate at which surging starts C - Minimum capacity D - Above the flow rate at which surging starts _______________________________________________

Question 17: VFD units are utilized with: A - Electric motors B - Gas turbines C - Steam turbines D - Internal combustion engines _______________________________________________

Question 18: The illustration serves to show what happens when a centrifugal compressor experiences "surge". As shown in the illustration, when the volume, is to the left of the point on the curve marked "surge limit", the compressor:

A - Will not produce a pressure equal to that in the system B - Produces blowoff on the discharge side C - Produces blowoff on the suction side D - Produces a pressure equal to that in the system _______________________________________________

Question 19: One method of unloading a compressor is to: A - Use a suction control valve in the suction line to restrict the flow of gas to the compressor B - Hold the compressor suction valves in the closed position C - Use a regulator in the steam supply to the steam turbine D - Use a control valve in the discharge line to restrict the flow of gas to the compressor _______________________________________________

Question 20: The type of control used in centrifugal types of compressors to ensure that the compressor is always loaded to above the flow rate at which surging starts is called a: A - Valve unloader B - Variable speed control C - Clearance pocket D - Bypass control PUMP_6010_Pump_Application_Selection_and_Codes

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Question 1: Centrifugal pumps are good for a wide range of capacities from small to the largest available, however, they are not positive displacement pumps, and with a decrease of discharge head, the discharge flow will: A - Remain constant B - Decrease C - Stop D - Increase _______________________________________________

Question 2: Reciprocating pumps: A - Have continuous discharge flow without pulsations B - Are capable of producing the highest discharge heads C - Can handle abrasive fluids very well D - Have the largest capacities _______________________________________________

Question 3: Vacuum pumps used to remove air and non-condensable gases from the turbine condenser, may be the positive displacement type or the jet type. As its operating medium, the jet type pump uses a jet of high-pressure: A - Air B - Water C - Steam D - Gas _______________________________________________

Question 4: The circulating water pump component labelled "B" is the:

A - Propeller B - Pump body C - Motor D - Coupling _______________________________________________

Question 5: The circulating water pump component labelled "A" is the:

A - Pump body liner B - Coupling C - Motor D - Pump body _______________________________________________

Question 6: In paragraphs PG-61.1 and PG-61.2 of Section I of the ASME Code, it is stated that "boilers having more than 46.4 m² of water heating surface shall have at least two means of feeding water".

A - True B - False _______________________________________________

Question 7: In a service requiring a positive displacement pump that handles only small capacities of clean and clear liquids and requires a high discharge head, the best pump design to select would be the: A - Centrifugal pump B - Vacuum pump C - Rotary pump D - Reciprocating pump _______________________________________________

Question 8: In a system that pumps only distilled water for laboratory use where small quantities of water with high discharge heads are required, the most appropriate type of pump to use is: A - reciprocating B - rotary C - centrifugal D - any of these _______________________________________________

Question 9: Circulating water pumps are required to move large quantities of cooling water through the turbine condenser. They are generally of the: A - Low head, large volume type B - High head, large volume type C - High head, low volume type D - Low head, low volume type _______________________________________________

Question 10: Which of the following describes centrifugal pumps? A - They are positive displacement pumps B - They will not handle dirty or abrasive fluids C - They will not pump against high discharge heads D - The discharge flow will decrease with an increase of discharge head _______________________________________________

Question 11: A spring loaded Kingsbury type thrust bearing is used: A - To locate the rotor of a multistage pump radially B - To locate the rotor of a multistage pump axially during start up and shutdown C - To produce thrust on a multistage pump rotor D - On all types of rotating equipment _______________________________________________

Question 12: Rotary pumps are not positive displacement pumps and consequently the discharge flow will decrease with increase of discharge head. A - True B - False _______________________________________________

Question 13: Forced circulation boilers require one or more pumps to produce the flow through the boiler tubes. This is necessary for boilers operating at and above the critical pressure of above: A - 14 000 kPa B - 14.0 kPa C - 1 400 kPa D - 140 kPa _______________________________________________

Question 14: When deciding which type of pump to use, one must consider: A - Capacity B - Head C - The fluid to be pumped D - All of the above _______________________________________________

Question 15: Rotary pumps: A - Are good for a wide range of capacities B - Can pump heavy or viscous fluids C - Will not pump against high-discharge heads D - Can handle abrasive fluids without damage _______________________________________________

Question 16: If you were designing a system to handle heavy or viscous, non-abrasive fluids where the pumps had to work against high discharge heads, the best type of pump to use in your design would be: A - reciprocating B - rotary C - centrifugal D - any of these _______________________________________________

Question 17: Medium and large-sized plants use centrifugal-type boiler feedwater pumps. In cases where the service pressure exceeds 10 000 kPa, the most common type of pump casing used is the: A - Split casing B - Worm casing C - Volute casing D - Barrel casing _______________________________________________

Question 18: In power plants where low-pressure steam is produced for building heating, a common arrangement is to have a unit that serves as both condensate pump and boiler feedwater pump. The pump design most commonly used for such service is the: A - Centrifugal pump B - Rotary pump C - Regenerative pump D - Reciprocating pump _______________________________________________

Question 19: Rotary pumps are positive displacement pumps, consequently the discharge capacity: A - Increases with an increase in discharge head B - Remains constant regardless of how the discharge head varies C - Decreases with a decrease in discharge head D - Decreases with an increase in discharge head _______________________________________________

Question 20: A unique advantage of steam-driven pumps is that their capacity can be varied from zero to maximum, independent of the: A - Discharge pressure B - Fuel supply C - Intake pressure D - Exhaust pressure _______________________________________________

Question 21: Centrifugal pumps: A - Cannot handle fluids with high solids content B - Will pump against high discharge heads C - Are limited to small capacities D - Are positive displacement pumps _______________________________________________

Question 22: According to PG-61.1 and PG-61.2 of Section I of the ASME Code, a boiler that has more that 500 square feet of water heating surface must have two water supply sources and each source must be capable of supplying water to the boiler at a pressure of __% higher than any safety valve on the boiler. A - 1 B - 3 C - 5 D - 7

PUMP 6011_Pump Installation and Maintenance

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Question 1: What does having a suction valve including a normal valving set-up for a typical pump installation allow for? A - relief from the reactionary forces in the piping B - prevention of axial stress on the pump driver rotor C - negative isolation of the pump D - positive isolation of the pump _______________________________________________

Question 2: Before the pump is put into operation, the stuffing boxes require inspection. If the liquid to be pumped is dirty or corrosive, the stuffing boxes need to be sealed with: A - Grease packing B - A neoprene gasket of appropriate size C - A clean sealing liquid from another source D - A caulking compound as recommended by the manufacturer

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Question 3: When the motor and pump shafts are aligned in such a way that the shafts are parallel but their axes are beside each other, the shafts are in: A - Parallel misalignment B - Angular misalignment C - Acute misalignment D - Axial misalignment _______________________________________________

Question 4: Parallel alignment is checked by placing a straight edge across both coupling rims at the top, bottom and sides or by using a dial gauge. Misalignment between the 3 o'clock and 9 o'clock position on the coupling can be corrected by:

A - Removing the jack bolts B - The addition or removal of levelling shims C - Shifting the driver unit sideways on the base plate D - Rotating the two flanges _______________________________________________

Question 5: Allowance must be made for expected temperature changes from the stopped condition to hot running condition. At the normal operating temperature of both components, the driver shaft and pump shaft must be aligned so that they are: A - At tangent B - Touching C - Beside each other D - Co-linear _______________________________________________

Question 6: True or false the following sequence shows the correct order for steps needed to take when replacing pump packing:

1. Shut down, isolate, and drain the pump.

2. Remove the gland adjusting nuts and slide the gland away from the stuffing box and remove old packing

3. Check the condition of the shaft or shaft sleeve and service or replace as required

4. Determine the correct size of the packing to be used

5. Wrap a coil of the correctly sized packing around the pump shaft and cut required number of rings

6. Apply a light coating of oil or grease to each ring and install them one at a time

7. Put the gland into place and compress the packing slightly by tightening the gland nuts.

8. Prime and start up the pump

A - True B - False _______________________________________________

Question 7: In a normal valving set-up, gate and check valves are installed in the discharge line. The check valve is installed: A - Before the gate valve and the pump B - Between the gate valve and the pump C - Downstream of the pump D - Upstream of the gate valve _______________________________________________

Question 8: When an axial flow centrifugal pump is started with the discharge valve shut, ____________________ may be required to start the pump. A - more suction B - more power C - less suction D - less power _______________________________________________

Question 9: Cavitation is caused by: A - Suction velocity too low B - Suction head too high C - Temperature of pumped liquid too low D - Temperature of pumped liquid too high _______________________________________________

Question 10: The type of pump that, under no circumstances, is to be started unless the casing and suction are filled with liquid is a: A - Regenerative pump B - Reciprocating pump C - Rotary pump D - Centrifugal pump _______________________________________________

Question 11: In order to provide for proper pump maintenance, an adequate stock of spare parts is kept on hand. It is usually only necessary to have spare valves and packing on hand for: A - Centrifugal pumps B - Reciprocating pumps C - Rotary pumps D - Regenerative pumps _______________________________________________

Question 12: Before starting a new pump that is equipped with Kingsbury-type thrust bearings, care should be taken to ensure that enough oil is supplied to protect the _________________ . A - thrust shoes B - babbits C - discharge valves D - ejector _______________________________________________

Question 13: The piping should be supported independently from the pump to avoid: A - Excess force on the jacks, chains, or levers used to align the pump and piping flanges B - Stress on the anchors C - Strain on the pump casing D - Stress on the expansion joints _______________________________________________

Question 14:

Before starting a new pump equipped with a Kingsbury-type thrust bearing, it is important to ensure that the oil supply is sufficient to protect the: A - Pump shaft B - Thrust shoes C - Stuffing box D - Sleeve bearing _______________________________________________ Question 15: In order to avoid pump outages, a schedule of preventive maintenance needs to be set up. Semi-annual equipment checks include all of the following except:

A - Renewal of stuffing box packing if necessary B - Measurement of the alignment of the pump and driver C - Balancing disc leakage D - Shaft sleeve inspection _______________________________________________

Question 16: Parallel alignment is checked by placing a straight edge across both coupling rims at the top, bottom, and sides or by using a dial gauge. Misalignment between the 12 o'clock and 6 o'clock position on the coupling can be corrected by: A - Shifting the driver unit sideways on the base plate B - Removing the jack bolts C - The addition or removal of levelling shims D - Rotating the two flanges _______________________________________________

Question 17: When the motor and pump shafts are aligned in such a way that the shafts are in line looking down from the top but are at an angle looking from the side, the shafts are in: A - Angular misalignment B - Axial misalignment C - Parallel misalignment D - Acute misalignment _______________________________________________ Question 18: When replacing pump packing, the first step is: A - Remove the gland adjusting nuts and slide the gland away from the stuffing B - Shutdown, isolate and drain the pump C - Determine the correct size of packing to be used D - Prime the pump _______________________________________________

Question 19:

Good pump maintenance procedures require that sleeve bearings should be dismantled, cleaned and have the oil changed every: A - month B - three months C - six months D - year _______________________________________________

Question 20: What must be installed between a pump and an expansion joint in the attached piping to prevent the transfer of stress to the pump? A - a thrust block B - a stress relief valve C - a foundation block D - an anchor CMPR_6010_Gas_Compression_-_Lubrication

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Question 1: One of the functions of lubricant additives is to: A - Increase effects of gas dilution B - Decrease effects of gas dilution C - Promote oxidization D - Decrease wetability

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Question 2: One of the functions of lubricant additives is to: A - Increase the lubricant pour point B - Decrease detergency C - Depress the lubricant pour point D - Increase effects of gas dilution _______________________________________________

Question 3: For external lubrication of reciprocating compressors using a pressure type of lubrication system, oil is: A - Pumped from the bearings to the crankcase B - Supplied directly from the feedstock within the compressor lines C - Splashed to the bearings using the movement of the crankshaft D - Pumped from the crankcase to the bearings _______________________________________________

Question 4: In a small, single-acting reciprocating compressor that uses the splash system for lubrication, the oil is: A - Pumped from the bearings to the crankcase B - Splashed from the compressor shaft to the crankshaft and connecting rod bearings C - Pumped from the crankcase to the bearings D - Splashed to the bearings using the movement of the crankshaft _______________________________________________

Question 5: In large reciprocating compressors, a mechanical lubricator that feeds oil directly to the cylinder walls is driven by the: A - Rings or a drive chain B - Compressor cylinder rods C - Crankcase bearings D - Crankshaft _______________________________________________

Question 6: Internal lubrication of a reciprocating compressor refers to: A - Lubrication of the vanes and casing walls B - Lubrication of the cylinder walls and pistons C - Lubrication of the cylinder valves D - Lubrication of the stuffing box _______________________________________________

Question 7: In terms of lubrication requirements, the greatest advantage of dynamic compressors (such as the centrifugal and the axial flow) over other designs is that: A - They do not require internal lubrication B - They do not require external lubrication C - Internal lubricators can be driven directly by the compressor driver D - Less internal lubrication is required because there is no reciprocating motion _______________________________________________

Question 8: In an arrangement where each cylinder may have one or more points to which the oil is pumped: A - A separate pump unit of the lubricator should feed each of these points B - The pressure lubricator discharges the oil into the gas intake C - A splash lubrication system is best D - One pump unit is adequate _______________________________________________

Question 9: In sliding vane rotary compressors, internal lubrication is often supplied by: A - A system where oil is splashed to the bearings using the movement of the crankshaft B - The compressor piston, which spreads the oil over the cylinder walls C - The electric motor that is driving the compressor D - A pressure lubricator _______________________________________________

Question 10: By definition, internal lubrication is not required by: A - Cylinder walls B - Connecting rod bearings C - Rotary compressor vanes D - Centrifugal compressor impellers _______________________________________________

Question 11: The lubrication supply for crankshaft bearings, connecting rod bearings and crosshead on reciprocating compressors, as well as rotor shaft bearings on rotary and dynamic compressors is an ____________ type. A - internal B - external C - none of these D - either of these _______________________________________________ Question 12: In reciprocating compressors where a pressurized lubrication delivery system is used, a pump driven by the ________________ delivers oil to the crankshaft and connecting rod bearings. A - external driver B - compressor shaft C - valve unloader D - casing _______________________________________________

Question 13: The viscosity index of a lubricant is: A - A measure of the ability of an oil to resist the thinning effect caused by increasing the oil temperature B - A measure of the ability of the lubricant to adhere to metal surfaces C - A measure of the ability of an oil to reduce corrosion D - The "slipperiness" or ability of a lubricant to decrease friction. _______________________________________________

Question 14: In a force-feed lubrication system, the system must be designed to provide _________________ to force feed the lubricator or pump. A - mechanical energy B - positive pressure C - a gravity feed D - negative pressure _______________________________________________

Question 15: In sliding vane rotary compressors, a pressure lubricator supplies the oil and may discharge the oil: A - Into the gas discharge B - Along the cylinder walls C - Into the gas intake D - To the rings or a drive chain _______________________________________________ Question 16: In a sliding vane compressor where the oil supplied by a pressure lubricator discharges into the gas intake, the oil is: A - Discharged to the crankcase B - Carried by the gas to the rotating vanes C - Splashed onto the cylinder walls D - Spread by the cylinder head _______________________________________________

Question 17: The "wetability" of a lubricant refers to the lubricants ability to:

A - Decrease friction B - Inhibit oxidation C - Adhere to metal surfaces D - Resist the thinning effect caused by increasing oil temperature _______________________________________________

Question 18: A lubricant: A - Eliminates corrosion B - Eliminates friction between two metallic surfaces C - Separates metallic surfaces and helps reduce the wear caused by friction D - Eliminates the wear of two metallic surfaces _______________________________________________

Question 19: Lubrication is a vital part of compressor operation aimed at:

A - Sealing and corrosion reduction B - Eliminating friction and wear C - Reducing wear caused by friction D - Shock absorption and wear reduction _______________________________________________

Question 20: The "lubricity" of a lubricant refers to: A - The lubricants ability to resist the thinning effect caused by increasing oil temperature B - The lubricants ability to reduce gas dilution C - The lubricants ability to decrease friction D - The lubricants ability to adhere to metal surfaces

Azamat Bazarov

Question 1: The standard that governs the specifications for the design and installation of differential pressure flowmeters states that the upstream edge of the orifice plate shall be as flat as can be obtained commercially and shall be: A - Bevelled at an angle of greater than 45 degrees Показать полностью.. B - Perpendicular to the axis of the pipe C - Installed with the bevel facing upstream D - Parallel to the axis of the pipe Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: B Correct Answer(s): B Marked as: Correct _______________________________________________ Question 2: The eccentric orifice is designed to pass fluids with suspended or entrained material because these impurities: A - Reduce the pressure of the flow B - Increase the temperature of the flow C - Build up behind the plate and cause erratic or false readings D - Provide the kinetic energy necessary for flow Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: C Correct Answer(s): C Marked as: Correct _______________________________________________ Question 3: The distance of the vena contracta from the orifice varies with the ratio of: A - Orifice plate thickness to pipe diameter B - Orifice diameter to pipe diameter C - Orifice diameter to pipe length D - Orifice diameter to flow temperature Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: B Correct Answer(s): B Marked as: Correct _______________________________________________ Question 4: The main disadvantage of an orifice plate installation is the: A - High-pressure loss B - Inflexibility for changes in flow range C - Difficulty of installation and replacement D - High price Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: A Correct Answer(s): A Marked as: Correct _______________________________________________ Question 5: Which of the following instruments used in measuring flow is not considered a positive displacement meter: A - Nutating disk meter B - Bellows type meter C - Rotating vane type meter D - Turbine meter Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: B Correct Answer(s): D Marked as: Incorrect _______________________________________________ Question 6: Flow leaving an orifice reaches a point where its area is minimum and the velocity is maximum. This is referred to as: A - The differential velocity B - The orifice constant C - The vena contracta D - Straightening Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: C Correct Answer(s): C Marked as: Correct _______________________________________________ Question 7: From the vena contracta, the stream section expands until it reaches a distance of about six pipe diameters downstream from the orifice plate, where the downstream static pressure recovers its upstream value. A - True B - False Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: B Correct Answer(s): B Marked as: Correct _______________________________________________ Question 8: The orifice plate shown here is a/an ___________ type. A - segmental B - integral C - concentric D - eccentric Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: D Correct Answer(s): D Marked as: Correct _______________________________________________ Question 9: Differential pressure flow meters: A - Do not create a drop in pressure B - Are classified as variable area meters C - Can be used to measure level D - Measure the difference in pressure across a restriction placed in a pipe Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: D Correct Answer(s): D Marked as: Correct _______________________________________________ Question 10: Which orifice plate type consists of a circular metal plate with a central hole or orifice? A - Integral B - Eccentric C - Segmental D - Concentric Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: D Correct Answer(s):

Azamat Bazarov

Question 1: The standard that governs the specifications for the design and installation of differential pressure flowmeters states that the upstream edge of the orifice plate shall be as flat as can be obtained commercially and shall be: A - Bevelled at an angle of greater than 45 degrees Показать полностью.. B - Perpendicular to the axis of the pipe C - Installed with the bevel facing upstream D - Parallel to the axis of the pipe Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: B Correct Answer(s): B Marked as: Correct _______________________________________________ Question 2: The eccentric orifice is designed to pass fluids with suspended or entrained material because these impurities: A - Reduce the pressure of the flow B - Increase the temperature of the flow C - Build up behind the plate and cause erratic or false readings D - Provide the kinetic energy necessary for flow Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: C Correct Answer(s): C Marked as: Correct _______________________________________________ Question 3: The distance of the vena contracta from the orifice varies with the ratio of: A - Orifice plate thickness to pipe diameter B - Orifice diameter to pipe diameter C - Orifice diameter to pipe length D - Orifice diameter to flow temperature Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: B Correct Answer(s): B Marked as: Correct _______________________________________________ Question 4: The main disadvantage of an orifice plate installation is the: A - High-pressure loss B - Inflexibility for changes in flow range C - Difficulty of installation and replacement D - High price Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: A Correct Answer(s): A Marked as: Correct _______________________________________________ Question 5: Which of the following instruments used in measuring flow is not considered a positive displacement meter: A - Nutating disk meter B - Bellows type meter C - Rotating vane type meter D - Turbine meter Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: B Correct Answer(s): D Marked as: Incorrect _______________________________________________ Question 6: Flow leaving an orifice reaches a point where its area is minimum and the velocity is maximum. This is referred to as: A - The differential velocity B - The orifice constant C - The vena contracta D - Straightening Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: C Correct Answer(s): C Marked as: Correct _______________________________________________ Question 7: From the vena contracta, the stream section expands until it reaches a distance of about six pipe diameters downstream from the orifice plate, where the downstream static pressure recovers its upstream value. A - True B - False Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: B Correct Answer(s): B Marked as: Correct _______________________________________________ Question 8: The orifice plate shown here is a/an ___________ type. A - segmental B - integral C - concentric D - eccentric Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: D Correct Answer(s): D Marked as: Correct _______________________________________________ Question 9: Differential pressure flow meters: A - Do not create a drop in pressure B - Are classified as variable area meters C - Can be used to measure level D - Measure the difference in pressure across a restriction placed in a pipe Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: D Correct Answer(s): D Marked as: Correct _______________________________________________ Question 10: Which orifice plate type consists of a circular metal plate with a central hole or orifice? A - Integral B - Eccentric C - Segmental D - Concentric Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: D Correct Answer(s):

Azamat Bazarov

Question 1: The standard that governs the specifications for the design and installation of differential pressure flowmeters states that the upstream edge of the orifice plate shall be as flat as can be obtained commercially and shall be: A - Bevelled at an angle of greater than 45 degrees Показать полностью.. B - Perpendicular to the axis of the pipe C - Installed with the bevel facing upstream D - Parallel to the axis of the pipe Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: B Correct Answer(s): B Marked as: Correct _______________________________________________ Question 2: The eccentric orifice is designed to pass fluids with suspended or entrained material because these impurities: A - Reduce the pressure of the flow B - Increase the temperature of the flow C - Build up behind the plate and cause erratic or false readings D - Provide the kinetic energy necessary for flow Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: C Correct Answer(s): C Marked as: Correct _______________________________________________ Question 3: The distance of the vena contracta from the orifice varies with the ratio of: A - Orifice plate thickness to pipe diameter B - Orifice diameter to pipe diameter C - Orifice diameter to pipe length D - Orifice diameter to flow temperature Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: B Correct Answer(s): B Marked as: Correct _______________________________________________ Question 4: The main disadvantage of an orifice plate installation is the: A - High-pressure loss B - Inflexibility for changes in flow range C - Difficulty of installation and replacement D - High price Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: A Correct Answer(s): A Marked as: Correct _______________________________________________ Question 5: Which of the following instruments used in measuring flow is not considered a positive displacement meter: A - Nutating disk meter B - Bellows type meter C - Rotating vane type meter D - Turbine meter Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: B Correct Answer(s): D Marked as: Incorrect _______________________________________________ Question 6: Flow leaving an orifice reaches a point where its area is minimum and the velocity is maximum. This is referred to as: A - The differential velocity B - The orifice constant C - The vena contracta D - Straightening Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: C Correct Answer(s): C Marked as: Correct _______________________________________________ Question 7: From the vena contracta, the stream section expands until it reaches a distance of about six pipe diameters downstream from the orifice plate, where the downstream static pressure recovers its upstream value. A - True B - False Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: B Correct Answer(s): B Marked as: Correct _______________________________________________ Question 8: The orifice plate shown here is a/an ___________ type. A - segmental B - integral C - concentric D - eccentric Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: D Correct Answer(s): D Marked as: Correct _______________________________________________ Question 9: Differential pressure flow meters: A - Do not create a drop in pressure B - Are classified as variable area meters C - Can be used to measure level D - Measure the difference in pressure across a restriction placed in a pipe Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: D Correct Answer(s): D Marked as: Correct _______________________________________________ Question 10: Which orifice plate type consists of a circular metal plate with a central hole or orifice? A - Integral B - Eccentric C - Segmental D - Concentric Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: D Correct Answer(s):

Azamat Bazarov

Question 1: The standard that governs the specifications for the design and installation of differential pressure flowmeters states that the upstream edge of the orifice plate shall be as flat as can be obtained commercially and shall be: A - Bevelled at an angle of greater than 45 degrees Показать полностью.. B - Perpendicular to the axis of the pipe C - Installed with the bevel facing upstream D - Parallel to the axis of the pipe Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: B Correct Answer(s): B Marked as: Correct _______________________________________________ Question 2: The eccentric orifice is designed to pass fluids with suspended or entrained material because these impurities: A - Reduce the pressure of the flow B - Increase the temperature of the flow C - Build up behind the plate and cause erratic or false readings D - Provide the kinetic energy necessary for flow Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: C Correct Answer(s): C Marked as: Correct _______________________________________________ Question 3: The distance of the vena contracta from the orifice varies with the ratio of: A - Orifice plate thickness to pipe diameter B - Orifice diameter to pipe diameter C - Orifice diameter to pipe length D - Orifice diameter to flow temperature Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: B Correct Answer(s): B Marked as: Correct _______________________________________________ Question 4: The main disadvantage of an orifice plate installation is the: A - High-pressure loss B - Inflexibility for changes in flow range C - Difficulty of installation and replacement D - High price Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: A Correct Answer(s): A Marked as: Correct _______________________________________________ Question 5: Which of the following instruments used in measuring flow is not considered a positive displacement meter: A - Nutating disk meter B - Bellows type meter C - Rotating vane type meter D - Turbine meter Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: B Correct Answer(s): D Marked as: Incorrect _______________________________________________ Question 6: Flow leaving an orifice reaches a point where its area is minimum and the velocity is maximum. This is referred to as: A - The differential velocity B - The orifice constant C - The vena contracta D - Straightening Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: C Correct Answer(s): C Marked as: Correct _______________________________________________ Question 7: From the vena contracta, the stream section expands until it reaches a distance of about six pipe diameters downstream from the orifice plate, where the downstream static pressure recovers its upstream value. A - True B - False Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: B Correct Answer(s): B Marked as: Correct _______________________________________________ Question 8: The orifice plate shown here is a/an ___________ type. A - segmental B - integral C - concentric D - eccentric Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: D Correct Answer(s): D Marked as: Correct _______________________________________________ Question 9: Differential pressure flow meters: A - Do not create a drop in pressure B - Are classified as variable area meters C - Can be used to measure level D - Measure the difference in pressure across a restriction placed in a pipe Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: D Correct Answer(s): D Marked as: Correct _______________________________________________ Question 10: Which orifice plate type consists of a circular metal plate with a central hole or orifice? A - Integral B - Eccentric C - Segmental D - Concentric Correctness Rule: Single Correct Answer Required Answer(s) Given: D Correct Answer(s):