mcq_ssd9_2
.docx(b) I, II, and III
(c) II and III only
(d) I and II only Correct answer is ©
267． Which of the following are measures of code complexity?
The number of lines of code
The number of total and distinct operators and operands
The number of branches in a module
(a) II only
(b) I, II, and III
(c) I only
(d) II and III only Correct answer is (b)
268． The primary qualities tested during acceptance testing are robustness and which of the following?
(a) Correctness, reliability, and security
(b) Reliability, performance, and documentation
(c) Correctness, reliability, and performance
(d) Correctness, performance, and documentation Correct answer is (d)
269． A software-versioning tool helps an organization manage which of the following? Versions of the software components
Variations of software modules
Configurations of software products
(a) I only
(b) I and III only
(c) I, II, and III
(d) I and II only Correct answer is (d)
270． Which of the following artifacts serve as documentation for the analysis and specification phase? The testing plan
Data flow diagrams
The specification document
(a) II only
(b) III only
(c) II and III only
(d) I, II, and III Correct answer is (c)
271． Typically, the bulk of the time spent in software maintenance is for which of the following kinds?
Corrective maintenance
Perfective maintenance
Adaptive maintenance
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) III only
(d) I and III only Correct answer is (b)
272． Which of the following are true about failures in software?
Software failures are not catastrophic in most applications.
The cause of software failures is not always easy to detect.
There are often ways of detecting problems before they lead to catastrophic failures.
(a) I, II, and III
(b) I and II only
(c) I and III only
(d) II and III only Correct answer is (a)
273． For software development, which of the following indicates the order in which three kinds of integration testing should be carried out?
(a) Product testing, acceptance testing, integration testing
(b) Integration testing, product testing, acceptance testing
(c) Integration testing, acceptance testing, product testing
(d) Product testing, integration testing, acceptance testing Correct answer is (b)
274． Which of the following are true about reusing prototype code for the final product with the rapid prototyping model?
Code for a rapid prototype is typically put together hastily, and it often does not satisfy performance constraints. Code for a rapid prototype is typically put together hastily, and it often is difficult and expensive to maintain.
The client will expect maintenance changes to the delivered product to be performed rapidly.
(a) I and II only
(b) I and III only
(c) I, II, and III
(d) II and III only Correct answer is (a)
275． Which of the following disadvantages does the incremental model have?
The developer must agree to an incremental model.
It must be possible to scope out the problem and architecture as a whole beforehand.
The problem to be solved must allow an incremental software solution.
(a) and III only
(b) I, II, and III
(c) I and III only
(d) I only Correct answer is (a)
276． A feature of the fountain model and other object-oriented models is
(a) overlap between development phases
(b) greater acceptability by clients
(c) shorter overall development times
(d) ease of application Correct answer is (a)
277． Of the following software life-cycle models, which has the most danger of not meeting the client's requirements?
(a) The waterfall model
(b) The rapid prototyping model
(c) The spiral model
(d) The fountain model Correct answer is (a)
281． Drawbacks of fourth-generation languages (4GLs) include which of the following?
They tend to be very general languages.
They allow inexperienced end users to write programs that can be wrong or harmful.
They can only be used within the context of CASE tools.
(a) I, II, and III
(b) II and III only
(c) I only
(d) II only Correct answer is (d)
282． Which of the following is true of nonexecution-based techniques?
(a) They are not as fail-safe as execution-based techniques.
(b) They take too long to be cost-effective.
(c) They find fewer errors than execution-based techniques.
(d) They can find most faults in the design and implementation phases. Correct answer is (d)
283． Which of the following are coding tools?
A data dictionary CASE tool
A source-level debugger
An operating system front end
(a) II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I only
(d) I, II, and III Correct answer is (b)
284． Advantages of structural testing include which of the following?
Testing every path through the code is often feasible and virtually eliminates the need for other kinds of testing.
It is possible to find dead paths through the code.
(a) I only
(b) none
(c) II only
(d) I and II Correct answer is (c)
285． CASE tools can help in which of the following aspects of software production?
Managing the details of software development
Keeping consistent versions of the documentation
Keeping track of different versions of the system
(a) III only
(b) I and III only
(c) I and II only
(d) I, II, and III Correct answer is (d)
300． Which of the following is (are) true about specific classes in the Java class hierarchy that derive their code from classes higher up in the hierarchy?
I. The methods of derived classes may differ from methods with the same name from base classes.
II. Hidden class incompatibilities may be created.
III. The fragile-base class problem may be created.
(a) II and III only
(b) I and II only
(c) I, II, and III
(d) III only Correct answer is (c)
305． Which of the following is true of software today?
(a) Software quality is steadily increasing.
(b) Software is ubiquitous and its quality often crucial.
(c) Most software being written currently is for educational and entertainment purposes.
(d) Most software being written currently is for private businees and government organizations. Correct answer is (b)
306 ． In the _____ phase of software development, the product undergoes changes and enhancements until it can no longer perform the task it was designed to perform, and then it enters the _____ phase.
(a) implementation, retirement
(b) implementation, maintenance
(c) maintenance, design
(d) maintenance, retirement Correct answer is (d)
307． Which of the following is true about the role of working code in a good software process?
(a) Good documentation is more important than working code.
(b) Working code is not the only deliverable for a successful software product.
(c) Clients typically do not pay for anything but the working code that is delivered.
(d) Developers are typically responsible only for the delivery of working code. Coar is (b)
308． Which of the following can play the role of client for a software product that is to be developed?
The end user of the product
The management of the company where the product will be used
The management of the company where the product will be developed
(a) I, II, and III
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I and II only Correct answer is (a)
309． Installer/administrator documentation for a software product includes instructions about which of the following?
Integration of updates and patches during maintenance
Modifications to the user interface of the software product
Any product-related activities that would be performed by the systems division of the organization
(a) II and III only
(b) I only
(c) I, II, and III
(d) I and III only Correct answer is (d)
311． In general, a maintenance release for a software product should
(a) minimize the amount of maintenance per release
(b) combine more than one type of maintenance in a release
(c) include only one type of maintenance per release
(d) include all required types of maintenance in the release correct answer is (C)
315． Who should be involved in requirements testing for a software project?
(a) The client's SQA group, the developer and the user
(b) The developer's SQA group and the client's management
(c) The developer's SQA group and the client's SQA group
(d) The developer's SQA group, the client, and the user Correct answer is (d)
316． In software development, which of the following testing approaches are used in integration testing?
Bottom-up integration
Top-down integration
Sandwich integration
(a) III only
(b) I and II only
(c) II and III only
(d) I, II, and III Correct answer is (d)
317． Who is most likely to make changes to the software product during maintenance?
(a) The user
(b) The producer
(c) The developer
(d) The client Correct answer is ©
318． Which of the following describes a drawback of the waterfall model?
(a) The product may not satisfy the customer's requirements even though the customer signed off on the specifications.
(b) A phase cannot begin until the previous phase has been approved.
(c) The product will take a long time and more money to develop than several of the modern models.
(d) Delays in one phase will ripple through the remaining phases and cause additional delays. Correct answer is (a)
319． A(n) _____ of using a rapid prototype as a specification document is that _____.
(a) disadvantage, it does not work very well as input to the waterfall model
(b) advantage, it is more precise than specifications written in a formal language
(c) disadvantage, it is unlikely that the rapid prototype will stand as a legal contract
(d) advantage, it will provide a clear reference point for future maintenance Correct (c)
320． Which of the following are advantages of the spiral model?
Prototypes can be reused in development.
There is smooth transition from development to maintenance.
There is risk-informed testing.
(a) I and II only
(b) II only
(c) I, II, and III
(d) II and III only Correct answer is (d)
321． For a software development project, who participates in design phase testing?
(a) The developer's SQA group and the design team
(b) The design team and the client
(c) The client's SQA group and the design team
(d) The client, the user, and the developer Correct answer is (a)
322． At what stage of software development should the choice of life-cycle model ideally be made?
(a) Before any product development begins
(b) During the specification phase
(c) Just before the maintenance phase begins
(d) During the design phase Correct answer is (a)
323． If the final product is developed by successively refining the prototype, then the rapid prototyping degenerates into the
(a) Waterfall model
(b) Build-and-fix model
(c) Spiral model
(d) Incremental model Cof (b)
324． Which of the following statements are true of problem identification?
The client may have an inaccurate perception of the problem.
It is solely the developer's responsibility to determine what the problem is.
The user may have an inaccurate perception of the problem.
(a) I and III only
(b) I and II only
(c) II only
(d) I only Correct answer is (d)
325 ． The architectural design document for a software development project contains a description of the
(a) modular decomposition of the system
(b) module interfaces and the data flow among modules
(c) data structures and algorithms for each module
(d) modules in the system, their interface, and the data and control flow among them Correct answer is (d)
326． For a software development project, where should documentation for module interfaces and the dataflow among modules appear?
(a) With general documentation for the system
(b) In the inline documentation
(c) At the top of each module
(d) With the documentation for testing done during implementation Correct answer is (a)
327． In the waterfall model of software development, no phase is considered completed until which of the following have occurred?
The documentation for the phase has been written.
The developer's SQA group has verified the phase.
The client has made all payments associated with the phase.
(a) I and III only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and II only
(d) I, II, and III Correct answer is (c)
328． The life-cycle model that supports both iteration within phases and parallelism between phases is the
(a) O-O model
(b) rapid prototyping model
(c) spiral model
(d) incremental model Csw (a)
329． Under which of the following conditions are two modules said to be data-coupled?
All arguments to a called module are simple data types
All arguments to a called module are complex data structures where all the data elements are utilized
The results of one module influence the subsequent actions of the other module
(a) I and III only
(b) III only
(c) II only
(d) I and II only Correct answer is (d)
331． CASE tools that are particularly useful in the maintenance phase include which of the following?
Front-end CASE tools
Software-versioning tools
Configuration-control tools
(a) I only
(b) II and III only
(c) III only
(d) I, II, and III Correct answer is (b)
332． Which of the following is true about the probable effect of adding new programmers to a software project? (a) Production will generally be sped up because new programmers generally bring bright new implementation ideas to a project.
(b) Production will generally be slowed because of the need for training and additional coordination.
(c) Production will generally be sped up because programmers are generally most productive when they first start on a project.
(d) Production will generally be sped up because of the decrease in pressure on the programmers already working on the project. Correct answer is (b)
333． Which of the following happen(s) during the design phase of software development?
Detailed design documents for the overall architecture are written.
Detailed design documents for each module are written.
Use case scenarios for the initial testing of the software product are written.
(a) II and III only
(b) I and II only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II, and III Correct answer is (b)
334． Which of the following is part of the system design phase of software development?
Choosing data structures and algorithms
Determining internal data flows
Decomposing the product into modules
(a) I and II only
(b) I, II, and III
(c) II and III only
(d) I only Correct answer is (b)
335． The principal feature of the incremental model is that
(a) the client gives requirements for the product to the developer over time
(b) the product is built in a series of successive releases or builds
(c) faults in the product are fixed incrementally
(d) the product is built all at once but maintenance happens through successive refinements Correct answer is (b)
336． Which of the following are goals of the requirements phase of the software development cycle?
To determine the general constraints on the product
To determine the staff assigned to product development
To determine what the client really needs
(a) I and II only
(b) I and III only
(c) III only
(d) I, II, and III Correct answer is (b)
337． What are the contents of the detailed design document for a software development project?
(a) A description of the system in terms of modules and their interfaces
(b) A description of the dataflow among system modules
(c) A description of the data structures and algorithms for each module
(d) A designation of which personnel will work on which parts of the design Correct is ©
338． When the incremental model is being used, work on specifications for a new increment should
(a) be delayed until detailed design of the previous increment is completed
(b) begin as soon as specifications for the previous increment are completed
(c) begin as soon as requirements for the previous increment are completed
(d) be delayed until architectural design of the previous increment is completed Correct answer is (d)
339． A feature of the spiral model that distinguishes it from other life-cycle models is the
(a) presence of feedback between phases
(b) use of risk analysis prior to each phase
(c) appropriateness of use for both internal and contract software development
(d) applicability to both small and large-scale software products Correct answer is (b)
340． In software development, what is integration testing?
(a) Testing whether the software product matches the design document
(b) Testing whether the software product integrates with the client's hardware platform
(c) Testing whether the software modules interface correctly together
(d) Testing whether the software product integrates with the client's other software Correct answer is (c)
341． Although a rapid prototype exhibits the key functionality of the target product, it may differ significantly from the target product in which of the following aspects? The user interface The platform on which it runs The language in which it is written
(a) II only
(b) III only
(c) I, II, and III
(d) II and III only Correct answer is (d)
342． Which of the following activities are typically used to elicit requirements for a software project from a client? Unstructured interview of the client
Observation of current work of expected users
Rapid prototyping
(a) I, II, and III
(b) I and II only
(c) II and III only
(d) I only Correct answer is (a)
343． A good way of insuring that a rapid prototype is not reused for the final product is
(a) to add a clause to that effect in the initial contract
(b) to avoid rapid prototyping altogether
(c) to never give the client the source code for the prototype
(d) to write it in a different language than the final product Correct answer is (d)
344． Which of the following indicates the order in which four of the phases in the software life cycle should be carried out?
(a) Design, implementation, requirements, and specifications
(b) Requirements, design, implementation, and specifications
(c) Requirements, specifications, design, and implementation
(d) Specifications, requirements, design, and implementation Correct answer is ©
345． In a software development project, it is important to keep track of the rationale underlying design decisions for which of the following reasons?
Future design changes need to be compatible with key design decisions.
The client and the user will want to review the design rationale for the product.
New personnel maintaining the software must be familiar with the original design rationale.
(a) I and III only
(b) I, II, and III
(c) II and III only
(d) I and II only Correct answer is (a)
346． Which of the following is true of the build-and-fix model of software development?
(a) It is never justified given the modern tools that are now available.
(b) It is considered to be an incomplete life-cycle model.
(c) It has been a widely used life-cycle model since the 1980s.
(d) It is a good choice for large-scale software products. Correct answer is (b)
347． Which of the following are true of informal specifications?
They are brief and easy to read.
They are precise.
They do not require knowledge of a special notation.
(a) I and III only
(b) III only
(c) I only
(d) II and III only Correct answer is (b)
348． Which of the following are true about a level 0 DFD?
It is called a fundamental system model.
It is called a context model.
It shows the whole product as a process with input and output.
(a) II and III only
(b) I and III only
(c) III only
(d) I, II, and III Correct answer is (d)
349． In determining whether a data dictionary is necessary, which of the following factors should be considered? The complexity of the processing that input undergoes
The internal complexity of input
The size of input
(a) I and II only
(b) I, II, and III
(c) II only
(d) I only Correct answer is (a)
350． What is the definition of the key for an entity in an entity-relationship model?
(a) It is the attribute that most completely identifies an entity.
(b) It is not a well-defined concept for all entities.
(c) It is the means of gaining access to an entity in a secure database.
(d) It is the attribute, or combination of attributes, that uniquely identifies an entity. Correct answer is (d)
351． In entity-relationship modeling, connections between sets of objects in the world are modeled as
(a) relations
(b) relationships
(c) tables
(d) pointers Correct answer is (b)
352． Which of the following is not a part of the software project management plan?
(a) Deliverables
(b) Assignment of personnel
(c) Rapid prototyping
(d) Milestones C is ©
353． Which of the following is true of Class Modeling in OOA?
(a) It is purely action oriented.
(b) It is both action and data oriented.
(c) It is purely data oriented.
(d) It is neither action nor data oriented. Correct answer is (c)
354． In a use case diagram, a relation is represented by a
(a) dashed diamond
(b) dashed arrow
(c) labeled arrow
(d) labeled diamond Corrr is ©
355． Which of the following is (are) true in a module with informational cohesion?
Each action has its own entry point
Each action has independent code
All actions work on the same data
(a) II and III only
(b) I, II, and III
(c) III only
(d) I and II only Correct answer is (b)
356． Which of the following factors contribute to limiting software reuse?
Programmer modesty
Ability to assess code quality
Retrievability of code
(a) II only
(b) I, II, and III
(c) II and III only
(d) I and III only Correct answer is (c)
357． The results of applying the Cleanroom technique have been
(a) discouraging: the resulting code has had more faults per KLOC than code tested with execution-based techniques only
(b) encouraging: the resulting code has had very few faults per KLOC or has been fault free
(c) about the same as using nonexecution-based techniques alone
(d) excellent: the resulting code has almost always been fault free Correct answer is (b)
358． Other names for glass-box testing techniques include which of the following?
I. White-box testing
II. Testing to code
III. Path-oriented testing
(a) I and III only
(b) III only
(c) I and II only
(d) I, II, and III Correct answer is (d)
359． Within the context of a data dictionary, the term cardinality refers to
(a) the size of a data item
(b) the internal structure of a data item
(c) the number of values that a data item can take on
(d) whether an item is optional or mandatory Correct answer is (c)
360． Coding tools include which of the following?
I. Structure editors
II. Producers of informative error messages
III. Pretty printers
(a) I and II only
(b) I only
(c) I, II, and III
(d) II only Correct answer is (c)
361． Which of the following is true in top-down integration testing of software?
(a) Logic modules and operations modules are coded and tested together.
(b) Modules are coded from the bottom up, but integration testing starts at the top.
(c) Logic modules are coded and tested first with lower modules as stubs.
(d) Logic modules are coded and tested first with higher modules as drivers. Corwer is ©
362． Utility of a software product includes which of the following
I. The ease with which a product can be used
II. The usefulness of the product
III. The cost-effectiveness of the product relative to competing products
(a) I and II only
(b) I, II, and III
(c) II and III only
(d) II only Correct answer is (b)
363． In a software development context, tool integration means that
(a) all tools communicate via the same data format
(b) all tools communicate via the same user interface
(c) all tools have a similar look-and-feel
(d) all tools are used in the same process Correct answer is (a)
364． Which of the following statements is (are) true of third generation languages?
I. A line of code corresponds to 5-10 machine code instructions.
II. They provide abstract control structures.
III. They are always compiled.
(a) I, II, and III
(b) II only
(c) I and II only
(d) I only Correct answer is (c)
365． Testing each procedure or function in a module is called
(a) functional testing
(b) equivalence testing
(c) structural testing
(d) functional and structural testing Correct answer is (a)
366． Which of the following is true of a logic module?
I.It incorporates the flow-of-control aspects of a product.
II. It is usually verified using a correctness proof.
III. It is usually found at the upper levels of the module interconnection graph.
(a) I, II, and III
(b) III only
(c) I only
(d) I and III only Correct answer is (d)
367．When and where is contract software validation performed?
(a) It is performed during acceptance testing at the developer's site.
(b) It is performed during product testing at the developer's site.
(c) It is performed during product testing at the client's site.
(d) It is performed during acceptance testing at the client's site. Correct answer is (b)
368． When code is confusing, it should be
(a) explained in an external document
(b) tested very carefully
(c) rewritten
(d) especially well documented Correct answer is (c)
369． Other names for black-box testing techniques include which of the following?
I. Testing to specifications
II. Data-driven testing
III.Input/output driven testing
(a) III only
(b) I, II, and III
(c) I and II only
(d) II and III only Correct answer is (b)
370． Baselines and access control systems are used for what purpose?
(a) To keep management informed of the progress on various components of the product
(b) To keep programmers from changing the same module(s) simultaneously
(c) To maintain different versions of the system
(d) To help integration testing be performed smoothly and quickly Correct answer is (b)
371. The languages Fortran, Pascal, COBOL, and C++ are examples of which generation of programming languages?
(a) third
(b) first
(c) second
(d) fourth Correct answer is (a)
373. Constants should be used
(a) for values that will never change
(b) as much as possible
(c) for values that will probably not change
(d) for values that will seldom change Correct answer is (a)
374. Impediments to structural testing in even a moderate size program include which of the following?
I. It is not possible to test each path
II. It is not possible to test each choice point with the data that will show a fault
(a) II only
(b) I only
(c) none
(d) I and II Correct answer is (d)
375. In nonexecution-based testing of software, the inspections team includes which of the following roles?
I. The moderator
II. The client representative/
III. The recorder
(a) I and II only
(b) I, II, and III
(c) I and III only
(d) II and III only Correct answer is (c)
376. The primary use of complexity metrics is to determine which modules
(a) need attention
(b) to recode in order to decrease complexity
(c) have more faults
(d) should be tested by the SQA group Correct answer is (a)
377. Which of the following statements is (are) true of testing techniques?
I. All techniques have some advantages and disadvantages.
II. All techniques are more or less equally effective at finding interface faults.
III. All techniques are more or less equally cost-effective.
(a) I and II only
(b) I, II, and III
(c) I and III only
(d) II and III only Correct answer is (a)
378. Which of the following are advantages of bottom-up integration?
I. It highlights design and coding faults early on.
II. It helps isolate faults to the upper modules.
III. It results in thorough testing of the operations models.
(a) II and III only
(b) I and II only
(c) III only
(d) I, II, and III Correct answer is (a)
379. Utility of a software product includes which of the following?
I. The ease with which a product can be used
II. The usefulness of the product
III. The cost-effectiveness of the product relative to competing products
(a) I, II, and III
(b) II and III only
(c) I and II only
(d) II only Correct answer is (a)
380. Baselines and access control systems are used for what purpose?
(a) To maintain different versions of the system
(b) To keep management informed of the progress on various components of the product
(c) To help integration testing be performed smoothly and quickly
(d) To keep programmers from changing the same module(s) simultaneously Correct answer is (d)
381. In contract software, the issues that might limit reuse of code include which of the following?
I. Legal ownership of the code
II. The higher cost of planning for development
(a) none
(b) I and II
(c) II only
(d) I only Correct answer is (b)
382. Rapid prototyping should be used for what purpose?
(a) To transition into the final product with a minimum of recoding
(b) As a substitute for design documents
(c) As a substitute for specifications
(d) Eliciting requirements from the user Correct answer is (d)
383. An open modular architecture for software is a requirement of the
(a) incremental model
(b) synchronize-and-stabilize model
(c) fountain model
(d) waterfall model Correct answer is (a)
384. Which of the following are updated after enhancements have been added to a software product?
I. Documentation for module interfacing
II. Documentation of test cases
III. The requirements, specification, and design documents
(a) III only
(b) I, II, and III
(c) I and II only
(d) II and III only Correct answer is (b)
385. In object-oriented analysis, which of the following are given emphasis?
I.Data
II.Actions
(a) I and II
(b) none
(c) II only
(d) I only Correct answer is (a)
386. In an object diagram, a class is represented as a
(a) labeled oval
(b) partitioned rectangle
(c) labeled arrow
(d) line labeled with cardinality information Correct answer is (b)
387. Which of the following is true of Dynamic Modeling in OOA?
(a) It is purely action oriented.
(b) It is purely data oriented.
(c) It is both action and data oriented.
(d) It is neither action nor data oriented. Correct is (a)
388. Which of the following is the term for reuse of code made possible because someone realized that the code of a previously developed component could be reused?
(a) Designed reuse
(b) Accidental reuse
(c) Purposeful reuse
(d) Managed reuse Corras
389.Which of the following is true when an inspection finds that 5 percent or more of a module must be reworked? (a) The module is discarded.
(b) The programmer responsible is reprimanded.
(c) The inspection team must reinspect the module fully after it has been reworked.
(d) Similar modules are reinspected. Correct answer is (c)
390.In a software testing activity, a driver refers to which of the following?
(a) A module that has yet to be coded but passes the appropriate values to the module being tested
(b) A special kind of module in an application
(c) The module being tested
(d) A module that either returns the information that was called or returns appropriate hard-coded values for given input Correct answer is (a)
391.Product testing for contract software includes which of the following?
I.Reliability testing
II.Robustness testing
III.Utility testing
(a) II and III only
(b) I only
(c) I, II, and III
(d) I and II only Correct answer is (d)
392.If a programmer violates coding standards, the manager should
(a) force the programmer to observe them
(b) respond in a way that balances the benefit of the standards with the burden they put on the programmer
(c) discipline the programmer
(d) have someone rewrite the code so it meets standards Correct answer is (b)
393.It may be worth redesigning and recoding a module from scratch under which of the following conditions?
(a) The inspection team members disagree on the severity of the faults.
(b) The programmer who coded the module thinks so.
(c) The inspection team members are dissatisfied with the quality of the code.
(d) Many more faults are found in that module than in any other module. Correct answer is (d)
394.The manager of the SQA group should run integration testing because programmers may have seen inconsistent copies of the design documentation programmers may be unwilling to take blame for inconsistencies between modules the SQA group has the most to lose if testing is badly performed
(a) I and II only
(b) I, II, and III
(c) II and III only
(d) III only Correct answer is (b)
395. In object-oriented systems
(a) inheritance and polymorphism make reused code easy to understand
(b) small self-contained objects facilitate reuse, but other problems complicate it
(c) small self-contained objects guarantee a high degree of reuse
(d) code reuse is impossible Correct answer is (b)
396.Black-box testing techniques are so named because testing is performed
(a) by carefully examining the code for all external interfaces for the module
(b) without examining any code
(c) by wrapping the module to be tested in special black-box code
(d) by carefully examining all critical parts of the code Correct answer is (b)
397.Which of the following is (are) considered a validation activity?
I. Product testing
II.Acceptance testing
III.Documentation testing
(a) I only
(b) III only
(c) I, II, and III
(d) II only Correct answer is (a)
398.Management integration refers to a CASE environment that supports which of the following?
I.Management of the software development process
II. Good communication at management-level meetings
(a) I and II
(b) none
(c) I only
(d) II only Correct answer is (c)
399.In object-oriented analysis, the second step of the class-modeling phase is to
(a) specify the classes along with their attributes and methods
(b) create and refine the preliminary class list
(c) extract candidate objects from the use case scenarios
(d) create an object diagram in UML Correct answer is(b)
340.Adaptive maintenance occurs in response to which of the following?
(a) Changes in design brought about by changes in requirements during development
(b) Changes in the client's computing facilities and environment
(c) Novel and unpredicted requirements of the client's organization
(d) Critiques levied by users during acceptance testing Correct answer is (b)
341.The languages Fortran, Pascal, COBOL, and C++ are examples of which generation of programming languages?
(a) third
(b) first
(c) second
(d) fourth Correct answer is (a)
342.Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: See section 6.1.2 of the course notes. See section 13.2 in the textbook. Constants should be used
(a) for values that will never change
(b) as much as possible
(c) for values that will probably not change
(d) for values that will seldom change Correct answer is (a)
343. Impediments to structural testing in even a moderate size program include which of the following?
I.It is not possible to test each path
II.It is not possible to test each choice point with the data that will show a fault
(a) II only
(b) I only
(c) none
(d) I and II Correct answer is (d)
344.In nonexecution-based testing of software, the inspections team includes which of the following roles?
I.The moderator
II.The client representative
III.The recorder
(a) I and II only
(b) I, II, and III
(c) I and III only
(d) II and III only Correct answer is (c)
345.The primary use of complexity metrics is to determine which modules
(a) need attention
(b) to recode in order to decrease complexity
(c) have more faults
(d) should be tested by the SQA group Correct answer is (a)
346.Which of the following statements is (are) true of testing techniques?
I.All techniques have some advantages and disadvantages.
II.All techniques are more or less equally effective at finding interface faults.
III.All techniques are more or less equally cost-effective.
(a) I and II only
(b) I, II, and III
(c) I and III only
(d) II and III only Correct answer is (a)
347.Which of the following are advantages of bottom-up integration?
I.It highlights design and coding faults early on.
II. It helps isolate faults to the upper modules.
III.It results in thorough testing of the operations models.
(a) II and III only
(b) I and II only
(c) III only
(d) I, II, and III Correct answer is (a)
348.Utility of a software product includes which of the following?
I.The ease with which a product can be used
II.The usefulness of the product
III.The cost-effectiveness of the product relative to competing products
(a) I, II, and III
(b) II and III only
(c) I and II only
(d) II only Correct answer is (a)
349.Baselines and access control systems are used for what purpose?
(a) To maintain different versions of the system
(b) To keep management informed of the progress on various components of the product
(c) To help integration testing be performed smoothly and quickly
(d) To keep programmers from changing the same module(s) simultaneously
Correct answer is (d)
350.Measures of reliability of a software product include which of the following?
I.Mean time between failures
II.Mean number of faults per thousand lines of code
III.Mean time to repair
(a) II and III only
(b) I, II, and III
(c) I only
(d) I and III only Correct answer is (d)
351.Software engineering has which of the following objectives?
I.Setting realistic expectations about the software development process
II.Manipulating trade-offs in functionality, schedule, and budget
III.Selecting hardware platforms for the software
(a) I only
(b) III only
(c) I and II only
(d) I, II, and III Correct answer is (c)
352.A common use of rapid prototyping is to help the client and the developer agree on which of the following aspects of the final product?
(a) Scope
(b) Robustness
(c) Performance constraints
(d) The user interface Correct answer is (d)
353.Which of the following desirable characteristics does the incremental model have?
I.The client does not have to wait for the complete product to get a return on investment.
II.The model has an open modular architecture, which is relatively easy to maintain.
III.New functionality is introduced gradually at the customer site.
(a) I and II only
(b) I, II, and III
(c) II and III only
(d) III only Correct answer is (b)
354. Which of the following is true of a specification document for a software project?
(a) It is a contract between the client and the developer.
(b) It specifies the budget, milestones, and deliverables.
(c) It is developed at the same time as the requirements document.
(d) It is primarily developed by the developer's SQA group. Correct answer is (a)
355.Which of the following is true of Class Modeling in OOA?
(a) It is purely action oriented.
(b) It is both action and data oriented.
(c) It is purely data oriented.
(d) It is neither action nor data oriented. Correct answer is (c)
356.Which of the following are advantages of bottom-up integration?
I.It highlights design and coding faults early on.
II.It helps isolate faults to the upper modules.
III. It results in thorough testing of the operations models.
(a) III only
(b) I, II, and III
(c) II and III only
(d) I and II only Correct answer is (c)
357.Which of the following is (are) true about the technique known as all-definition-use path coverage?
I. All paths between the definition of a variable and its use are tested.
II. In practice, the number of paths is as large as the number of paths in simple path coverage.
(a) II only
(b) I and II
(c) none
(d) I only Correct answer is (d)
358.Deliberate reuse is better than any other kind of reuse because components are likely to be which of the following?
I.Better documented
II.Better tested
III.Easier to maintain
(a) I, II, and III
(b) I only
(c) II and III only
(d) I and II only Correct answer is (a)
359.In nonexecution-based testing of software, the inspections team includes which of the following roles?