58. Is instruction of employees mandatory?

• no;

• yes;

• may be;

• all of the answers are wrong

• 2 и 3.

59. Reason of occupational diseases?

• industrial dust;

• chemical production factors;

• physical production factors;

• biological production factors;

• all of the answers are correct

60. Consequence of effects of different external hazardous factors on the body:

• risk;

• danger;

• work injury;

• 1 и 3;

• all of the answers are wrong

61. Work injury can take place from effects of:

• chemical factors, such as pesticides, in the form of poisoning or burns

• electric current - burns, electric shocks, etc.

• high or low temperatures (burns or frostbite)

• a combination of different factors

• all of the answers are correct

62. Set of accidents in the industry (enterprise):

• Risk

• Industrial injury

• Danger

• 1 и 3

• all of the answers are wrong

63. The causes of industrial injuries:

• technical

• sanitary and hygienic

• organizational

• psychophysiological

• all of the answers are correct

64. Corrective actions in identifying inconsistencies in the functioning of the OHS management system is to eliminate the causes of deficiencies for which is carried out:

• changes in the internal documentation management system labour safety

• yield the initiative to amend the requirements of legal acts in the field of labour safety, based on the activity

• redistribution of responsibility and authority in the field of labour

• reallocation of resources

• all of the answers are correct

65. For the prevention of industrial injuries are the most important:

• To provide with instructions;

• training;

• check on labor protection;

• solution of personal problems of employees;

• 1, 2 и 3.

66. By the nature and timing of the instruction of employees in the workplace is divided into the following types:

• introductory, primary, repeated, unscheduled, target;

• primary, repeated, unscheduled, target;

• introductory, repeated, unscheduled, target;

• introductory, primary, unscheduled, target;

• introductory, primary, repeated, unscheduled;

67. What types of instructing are held with students in different types of practices?

• primary, repeated;

• introductory, repeated;

• introductory, primary, repeated;

• introductory, primary;

• only introductory.

68. Who conducts instructing for employees in the workplace?

• specialist on OHS;

• the employee;

• Head of the enterprise or organization;

• labor inspector of the state;

• all of the answers are wrong

69. System of organizational measures and technical means to prevent or reduce the impact on the workers harmful industrial factors:

• non-productive sanitation

• production area

• industrial lighting

• industrial hygiene;

• all of the answers are wrong

70. The main hazardous and harmful factors include:

• Excessive dust and gas contamination of air in

• elevated or low temperatures air of the working area and higher or low mobility of and air humidity in the work area

• elevated levels of various electromagnetic radiations and poor lighting the work area

• high level of noise and vibration

• all of the answers are correct

71. Types of lighting:

• natural;

• artificial;

• combined;

• 1, 2 и 3;

• all of the answers are wrong

72. Artificial lighting is divided into:

• working, security, local

• emergency, security, general

• working, security, local

• operating, emergency, security, local

• operating, emergency, security, general and local

73. What type of lighting is the most favorable to human health?

• Natural and artificial;

• artificial;

• natural;

• combined;

• all of the answers are wrong

74. On a design of natural light is divided into the following types:

• side, carried out through the window openings, one-or two-way

top, when light enters the room through the aeration or antiaircraft lights, holes in the roof and floors

• combined when lighting is added to the upper side

• 1 и 2;

• 1, 2 и 3 .

75. Measure of the luminous flux:

• lm;

• V;

• W;

• dB;

• all of the answers are wrong

76. Measure of the light intensity:

• lx;

• V;

• W;

• dB;

• all of the answers are wrong

77. Normative documents on the coverage:

• Building regulations SNIP RK 2.04-05-2002. Design standards. Natural and artificial lighting;

• building regulations SNIP 5.08-05-1987 USSR. Design standards. Natural and artificial lighting

• There is no specific regulatory document нет конкретного нормативного документа;

• instruction on correct lighting design RK 5 December 2003

• all of the answers are wrong

78. Formula of daylight factor:

• е = Е_вн./Е_нар.·100 %

• е = Е_вн./Е_нар.

• е = Е_вн.·100 %_./Е_нар

• е = Е_вн.·24_./Е_нар

• all of the answers are wrong

79. Formula of normalized values ​​of daylight factor:

• e_N = e_H x m_N;

• e_N = e_H/m_N;

• e_N = e_H x 100%/m_N;

• e_N = m_N/e_H;

• all of the answers are wrong

80. Microclimate of industrial premises include:

• air temperature;

• relative humidity;

• air velocity;

• the intensity of thermal radiation;

• all of the answers are correct

81. Physiological ability to regulate heat exchange between the organism and the environment, depending on weather conditions, keeping your body temperature at a constant level:

• thermorezistention;

• thermoregulation;

• thermocouple;

• termoskleyka;

• all of the answers are correct

82. Under what conditions is a thermoregulatory mechanism operates of human without stress, there is thermal comfort, well-being and high availability?

• In thermal equilibrium (at QB = Q0);

• if Q0 more or less QB;

• if the QB more or less than Q0;

• 2 и 3;

• all of the answers are wrong

83. When there is an accumulation or excessive heat removal, and therefore - overheating or overcooling of the body?

• if the QB more or less than Q0

• In thermal equilibrium (at QB = Q0);

• if q_к more than q_п;

• 1 и 3;

• all of the answers are wrong

84. The optimum temperature of air in the premises:

• 10-20 ^оС;

• 16-25 ^оС;

• 13-28 ^oС;

• 20-25 ^оС;

• 15-30 ^оС;

85. Permissible temperature of air in the premises:

• 10-20 ^оС;

• 16-25 ^оС;

• 13-28 ^oС;

• 20-25 ^оС;

• 15-30 ^оС;

86. Types of humidity of air:

• maximum, absolute, relative humidity and concentrated;

• Absolute and relative;

• maximum and absolute;

• maximum, absolute and relative humidity;

• all of the answers are wrong

87. Relative humidity is (Вo):

• the ratio of maximum to absolute humidity, in%;

• the ratio of absolute to relative humidity, expressed in%;

• the ratio of absolute humidity to the maximum, in%;

• multiplication of absolute humidity to the maximum, in%;

• all of the answers are wrong

88. The actual amount of vapor in 1m³ of air (g/m³) and the partial vapor pressure (Pa) at a given temperature::

• absolute humidity;

• maximum humidity;

• relative humidity;

• 1 и 2;

• all of the answers are wrong

89. The maximum possible number vapors in 1m³ of air (g/m³) and the saturated vapor pressure (Pa) at a given temperature:

• absolute humidity;

• maximum humidity;

• relative humidity;

• 1 и 2;

• all of the answers are wrong

90. Optimum air velocity are:

• 0,3-0,9 m/s;

• 0,15-1,5 m/s;

• 0,3-0,5 m/s;

• 0,2-1,0 m/s;

• all of the answers are wrong

91. Permissible air velocity are:

• 0,3-0,9 m/s;

• 0,15-1,5 m/s;

• 0,3-0,5 m/s;

• 0,2-1,0 m/s;

• all of the answers are wrong

92. How many categories are there by severity based on total energy expenditure of the body?

• 3;

• 2;

• 4;

• 1;

• 5.

93. What types of air ventilation depend on methods and means for movement are there?

• Natural, artificial (mechanical);

• Just natural;

• Natural, artificial (mechanical) and mixed;

• just artificial (mechanical);

• all of the answers are wrong

94. What types of the air ventilation depend on actions place are there?

• general exchange, local and combined

• natural, artificial (mechanical) and mixed

• general exchange, local

• natural, artificial

• all of the answers are wrong

95. How does classify the natural ventilation?

• as a direct and indirect;

• the unorganized (infiltration) and organized (aeration);

• at the local and general;

• long and short;

• the dense and loose.

96. Types of mechanical ventilation:

• as a direct and indirect

• natural, artificial

• air intake and air extraction

• air intake, air extraction and air intake- extraction

• all of the answers are wrong

97. Any sound that can cause hearing loss or to be harmful to health or dangerous in other ways:

• noise;

• sound;

• physiological noise;

• physical noise;

• wave.

98. Any adverse effects on human sound:

• noise;

• sound;

• physical noise;

• wave.

• physiological noise;

99. Chaotic position sounds of different frequencies and intensities:

• noise;

• sound;

• wave;

• physical noise;

• physiological noise.

100. Effect on the human hearing system alternating waves of compression and expansion:

• noise;

• physical noise;

• wave;

• sound;

• physiological noise.

101. Какими параметрами звуковых волн характеризуется шум как физическое явление?

• частота (f) и скорость (v);

• колебания и звуковое давление (p);

• интенсивность звука (J) и звуковая мощность (N);

• плотность звуковой энергии (E);

• all of the answers are correct

102. Frequency of the sound is measured?

• V;

• Hz;

• W;

• А;

• Pа.

103. Range of sound perceived by the human ear, limited hearing thresholds and pain sensation related to the frequency:

• 16-20000 Hz;

• 10-16000 Hz;

• 5000-8000 Hz;

• 800-6000 Hz;

• all of the answers are wrong

104. Depend on temporal characteristics noises are divided into:

• mechanical, aerodynamic, hydrodynamic and electromagnetic;

• mechanical, aerodynamic;

• permanent and non-permanent;

• octave, one-third and half-octave;

• all of the answers are wrong

105. Noise of natural origin are divided into:

• mechanical, aerodynamic, hydrodynamic and electromagnetic;

• mechanical, aerodynamic;

• permanent and non-permanent;

• octave, one-third and half-octave;

• all of the answers are wrong

106. For approximate estimation (in most cases, when the spectrum is unknown) is allowed the characteristic of the constant noise in the workplace to take the sound level in:

• Hz;

• dBA;

• V;

• А;

• Pa.

107. Noise protection facilities used in industrial plants, divided into:

• Architectural and planning, organizational and technical;

• collective and personal protective equipment;

• architectural and planning, organizational and technical, collective and personal protection;

• Architectural and planning;

• all of the answers are wrong

108. Depending on the method of transmission of vibrations to the human body are distinguished:

• strong and weak;

• fast and slow;

• intensive and non-intensive;

• Local and general;

• all of the answers are wrong

109. What categories of general vibration depending on the source of its origin could be?

• Transportation Vibration;

• transport and technological vibration;

• technological vibration;

• 1, 2 и 3;

• all of the answers are wrong

110. Means of protection against vibration is divided into:

• collective and personal;

• Architectural and planning, organizational and technical;

• architectural and planning, organizational and technical, collective and personal protection;

• Architectural and planning;

• all of the answers are wrong

111. Types of vibroisolation:

• strong and weak;

• active and passive;

• fast and slow;

• intensive and non-intensive;

• local, total;

112. What groups are sources of electromagnetic radiation in the production?

• products that are specifically designed to radiate electromagnetic energy;

• devices are not designed to emit electromagnetic energy in space, but when electric current flowing, and thus there is a parasitic radiation of electromagnetic waves;

• 1 и 2;

• electrostatic fields;

• all of the answers are wrong

113. How classified electromagnetic waves?

• radio, optical;

• optical and ionizing;

• radiofrequency, optical and ionizing;

• infrared and ultraviolet;

• all of the answers are wrong

114. Form of radiation sickness:

• acute;

• chronic;

• short-term;

• 2 и 3;

• 1 и 2.

115. Basic methods of radiation protection:

• protection by the distance;

• protection by the times;

• shielding (screening);

• personal protective equipment;

• all of the answers are correct

116. During the shielding to protect against radiation shield, the following materials:

• lead, lead glass;

• lead rubber, iron;

• barite, concrete;

• tungsten;

• all of the answers are correct

117. Passing through the human body, what impact does it electric current?

• thermal;

• electrolytic;

• biological;

• destructing;

• all of the answers are correct

118. How many degree has electric shocks?

• 1;

• 2;

• 3;

• 4;

• 5.

119. How characterized degree I of electric shock?

• muscular twitching without loss of consciousness;

• loss of consciousness, but with preserved respiration and heart;

• loss of consciousness and heart disorder and / or breathing;

• state of clinical death;

• all of the answers are correct

120. How characterized degree II of electric shock?

• muscular twitching without loss of consciousness;

• loss of consciousness, but with preserved respiration and heart;

• loss of consciousness and heart disorder and / or breathing;

• state of clinical death;

• all of the answers are correct

121. How characterized degree III of electric shock?

• muscular twitching without loss of consciousness;

• loss of consciousness, but with preserved respiration and heart;

• loss of consciousness and heart disorder and / or breathing;

• state of clinical death;

• all of the answers are correct

122. How characterized degree IV of electric shock?

• muscular twitching without loss of consciousness;

• loss of consciousness, but with preserved respiration and heart;

• loss of consciousness and heart disorder and / or breathing;

• state of clinical death;

• all of the answers are correct

123. Depends on what factors severity of electric shock?

• values ​​of the force and voltage, type and frequency of the current;

• electrical resistance of the human body;

• duration of current flow through the human body;

• individual features of human and environment;

• all of the answers are correct

124. Alternating current is more dangerous than permanent:

• at voltages up to 250-300 V;

• at voltages above 1000 V;

• always;

• at 2000-3000V;

• all of the answers are correct

125. Permanent current is more dangerous than alternating:

• at voltages up to 250-300 V;

• at voltages above 1000 V;

• always;

• at 20-30 V;

• all of the answers are correct

126. Electric shock to persons may occur in the following case:

• Touching the electrical parts of electrical installations;

• touching the non-electrical parts of installations, is under voltages as a result of damage to the insulation;

• the impact of touch voltage and step;

• touching the non-electrical parts of installations, is under voltages as a result of damage to the protective grounding;

• all of the answers are correct

127. Depending on the location of earthing relative to grounding equipment grounding devices are divided into types:

• long and short;

• remote and contour;

• triple and double;

• planned and unplanned;

• all of the answers are correct

128. What types of earthing are?

• long and short;

• natural and artificial;

• triple and double;

• planned and unplanned;

• all of the answers are correct

129. Electrical protective means for its intended purpose are divided into:

• insulating, protecting and supporting;

• insulation, protecting;

• fencing, support;

• и insulating, protecting, supporting and partitions;

• all of the answers are wrong

130. How many groups are of all the rooms on accessibility of electrical equipment and qualification of personnel?

• 1;

• 2;

• 3;

• 4;

• 5.

131. How many groups are classified all the electrical installation for voltage?

• to 220 and above 220​​;;

• up to 1000 and up to 1000 V;

• up to 20 V and above 20 V;

• to 600 and up to 600 V;

• all of the answers are wrong

132. How many qualifying groups for work on electrical equipment exist?

• 1;

• 2;

• 3;

• 4;

• 5;

133. Systems of fire and explosion protection it is - …

• a set of organizational measures and technical means to prevent human exposure to hazards of fire and explosion, and limit material damage;

• complex organizational and technical means to prevent human exposure to hazards of fire and explosion;

• complex organizational and technical means to limit the material damage;

• fire alarm and evacuation plan;

• all of the answers are wrong

134. Fire protection (explosion protection) facilities provided with:

• right choice fire resistance of the object and the limits of fire resistance of individual elements and structures, as well as limiting the spread of fire in the event of occurrence of the fire;

• provision of fire security facility, gas rescue and mountain rescue services;

• using of active explosion suppression systems and application designs easily dumped in buildings;

• using systems of smoke protection and safe evacuation of people and using of fire alarm, notification and firefighting;

• all of the answers are correct

135. How many categories are subdivided production depending on the used or stored on them materials and substances by explosion and fire?

• 2

• 3

• 4

• 5

• 6

136. Why plants for fire and explosion hazard categorization is essential?

• as largely determines the requirements for the building;

• as largely to determine requirements for the design and planning of the building;

• allows the organization of fire protection and technical lighting;

• to determine the requirements for the regime and operation;

• all of the answers are correct

137. The degree of fire resistance is called:

• the ability of the building (structure) generally resist the destruction of the building in case of fire;

• ability of building (structure) to put out fires;

• ability of building (structure) to withstand natural disasters;

• all of the answers are correct

• all of the answers are wrong

138. How many degrees are classified for fire resistance of the building and construction?

• two degrees;

• three degrees;

• four degrees;

• five degrees;

• all of the answers are wrong

139. How many groups are divided flammability constructions?

• two degrees;

• three degrees;

• four degrees;

• five degrees;

• all of the answers are wrong

140. From the point of view of fire safety general plans of industries should:

• provide the necessary distance from the borders to the neighboring enterprise and place of settlement;

• provide for the proper zoning of buildings and structures according to their destination and other characteristics;

• satisfy the required fire breaks between buildings and structures;

• provide the necessary distance from the boundaries of the enterprise to the strip main railways and waterways;

• all of the answers are correct

141. The commonfire barriersinclude:

• fire walls;

• Fire protection bulkheads;

• Fire overlaping;

• fire zones and water units;

• all of the answers are correct

142. From what materials must be made fire barriers?

• of conventional materials;

• of non-combustible materials;

• of metallic materials;

• all of the answers are correct

• all of the answers are wrong

143. Why are established smoke hatches and mine?

• provides direction smoke removal;

• provide non-smoke pollution of adjacent spaces;

• facilitate the detection fire site;

• all of the answers are correct

• all of the answers are wrong

144. Why are used easy dumped enclosing structures?

• they are destroyed in the explosion, causing the pressure inside the building is reduced and the main supporting building structures are not destroyed

• they provide directional removal of smoke

• they facilitate the detection fire site

• provide non-smoke pollution of adjacent spaces

• all of the answers are correct

145. What factors are dangerous to humans in the early stages of a fire?

• high temperature;

• reduction in the concentration of oxygen;

• appearance of of toxic substances in the air of the room;

• poor visibility due to smoke content;

• all of the answers are correct

146. How is called the time from the start of the fire to a dangerous situation for a person?

• evacuation time;

• time of salvation;

• the critical duration of the fire;

• all of the answers are correct

• all of the answers are wrong

147. On what principles are based methods of fire extinguishing?

• the removal of heat from the combustion zone;

• reduce the concentration of fuel or oxidizer in the combustion zone;

• braking of the chemical reaction of combustion;

• 2 и 3;

• all of the answers are correct

148. What gases are used to extinguish the fire?

• carbon dioxide;

• nitrogen;

• gases based on halogenated hydrocarbons газы;

• 1 и 2

• all of the answers are correct

149. What types of fire extinguishers do you know?

• water;

• air-foam;

• powder;

• gas;

• all of the answers are correct

150. What reasons underlie emergencies?

• comprehensible and incomprehensible;

• complete and incomplete;

• explainable and unexplainable;

• internal and external;

• all of the answers are correct

151. How many stages of an emergency are allocated?

• 2;

• 3;

• 4;

• 5;

• 6.

152. Classification of emergency for departmental belonging?

• construction and industry;

• housing and municipal, domestic sphere;

• transport communications and transport;

• agriculture and forestry;

• all of the answers are correct

153. Classification of emergency situations on the field of:

• technogenic and natural origin;

• environmental and man-made;

• social origin;

• all of the answers are wrong;

• all of the answers are correct

154. Classification of emergency on the scale of distribution:

• The object;

• local;

• regional;

• global;

• all of the answers are correct

155. Classification of emergency on the propagation velocity of danger:

• sudden with fast-propagating danger;

• propagating a moderate speed;

• with a slow propagating velocity;

• all of the answers are wrong;

• all of the answers are correct

156. Natural emergencies include:

• geophysical and geological hazards;

• meteorological and agro-meteorological hazards;

• marine hydrology and hydrological hazards, natural fires;

• infectious diseases of humans, animals, damage of agricultural plants with diseases and pests;

• all of the answers are correct

157. Technogenic emergencies include:

• industrial and transportation accidents, fires;

• accident with ejection of highly toxic substances, poisoning materials and biological poisoning materials;

• sudden collapse of buildings and hydrodynamic accidents;

• accidents in electric power systems, on public network of life support, at wastewater treatment plants;

• all of the answers are correct

158. Social emergency include:

• an armed attack;

• unrest in some areas;

• the use of modern weapons in the fighting in the war;

• acts of terrorism;

• all of the answers are correct

159. What natural emergencies are not typical of the Republic of Kazakhstan?

• volcanic eruptions;

• typhoons;

• tornadoes;

• natural peat fires;

• all of the answers are correct

160. What does it mean civil defense?

• a state system of controls and a set of national events held in peacetime and wartime to protect the population, organizations and the country from the effects of damaging (destroying) factors of modern means of destruction of natural and man-made disasters;

• rescue measures;

• training activities;

• reconstruction work;

• emergency work.

161. On what principle are created the formation of civil defense in organizations, regions, cities and districts?

• on the main;

• by territory;

• on territorial-production;

• on the production;

• all of the answers are wrong

162. Whose orders to follow the territorial formation of civil defense?

• appropriate akims;

• appropriate heads of civil defense;

• appropriate staff of civil defense;

• Minister of Emergency Situations;

• all of the answers are wrong

163. Which of the major types of civil defenses formation are?

• rescue teams;

• engineering formation;

• operational and rescue teams;

• teams of fire fighting;

• all of the answers are correct

164. Who shall not be included in the formations of civil defense?

• Disabled groups 1,2,3;

• Pregnant women;

• women with children under 8 years;

• men and women of nonworking age;

• all of the answers are correct

165. To eliminate the effects of natural and man-made emergency situations from the existing groups of CD and regular specialized units are created emergency response teams of districts total number high alert:

• at least 150 people;

• at least 100 people;

• at least 50 people;

• at least 20 people;

• all of the answers are wrong

166. To eliminate the effects of natural and man-made emergency situations from the existing groups of CD and regular specialized units are created emergency response teams of cities total number high alert:

• at least 150 people;

• at least 100 people;

• at least 50 people;

• at least 20 people;

• all of the answers are wrong

167. To eliminate the effects of natural and man-made emergency situations from the existing groups of CD and regular specialized units are created emergency response teams of region total number high alert:

• at least 150 people;

• at least 100 people;

• at least 50 people;

• at least 20 people;

• all of the answers are wrong

168. Problem of increasing the sustainability of facilities management, nowadays is becoming increasingly important due to several reasons:

• weakening mechanism of state regulation and safety in production, reduction of labor and technological discipline at all levels of production, as well as reducing emergency sustainable production;

• high progressive deterioration of fixed assets while reducing the rate of renewal, as well as increasing the technological capacity of production, growth in transport, storage and study of hazardous substances, materials and products, waste production that threaten people and the environment;

• the idle legislative, legal and regulatory framework, and insufficient of scientific basis of risk analysis problem in security management and disaster prevention;

• reduction of exactness and effectiveness of government operations, and the possibility of military conflicts and terrorist acts;

• all of the answers are correct

169. What does it mean the stability of work of industrial facility?

• the ability of industrial facility in an emergency peacetime and wartime to restore production in the shortest possible time;

• the ability of industrial facility in an emergency peacetime and wartime produce established products in volume and nomenclature under the relevant plans;

• the ability of industrial facility in an emergency peacetime and wartime to avoid stopping production;

• 1 и 2;

• 2 и 3.

170. What is the general similarity between the industrial facilities?

• there is no similarity, all, each object is unique;

• in all buildings being carried out production;

• density of development at many facilities is 30-60%;

• 2 и 3;

• all of the answers are wrong

171. What factors are affecting on the preparation facility for use in an emergency peacetime and wartime?

• area of ​​the facility and readiness of the object to the restoration of production;

• internal planning and construction of territory of the facility;

• energy supply system and technological process;

• production links and the system management;

• all of the answers are correct

172. Cities with high economic, strategic and defense value:

• categorized centers;

• categorized cities;

• categorized areas;

• categorized objects;

• all of the answers are wrong

173. How many groups have categorized cities on importance?

• 2;

• 3;

• 4;

• 5;

• all of the answers are wrong

174. To what group of city classified cities refers the capital of RK and the cities with a population of 1 million or more?

• 1;

• 2;

• 3;

• 4;

• special.