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Edward Holloway
Figure 3.8 Lateral radiograph of left hip
acetabulum does not look loose goes against this. Pseudotumour formation is associated with metal­on-metal bearing couples.
15. Answer E. Placement of posterolateral portal
By far the most common direct nerve injury resulting from hip arthroscopy portal placement is of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve when placing or working through the anterior portal. Sciatic nerve injury causing a foot drop is a rare compli­cation of posterolateral portal placement, made more likely by placing the leg in external rotation.
Papavasiliou AV, Bardakos NV.
Complications of arthroscopic surgery of the hip. Bone Joint Res.2012;1:131–144.
16. Answer B. 36mm versus 32mm head
Scenarios of hip instability are regularly asked in the Part 1 paper. It is an extremely important topic as surgeons need to know how to deal with an on table unstable hip.
The primary arc of hip motion is the range that the hip can move before the neck impinges upon the acetabulum and is an important determin­ant of THA stability. A lipped or angled liner may improve stability by increasing coverage but actually decreases the primary arc of motion and, in this instance, may make anterior dislocation more likely by causing posterior impingement levering the hip out of joint. A high offset stem or lateralised liner will not alter the primary arc of movement but may improve stability by moving the femoral neck away from impinging soft tissues or osteo­phytes (potential to the detriment of proper restor­ation of hip biomechanics). A skirted head (asfound on the longer lengths) decreases the primary arc. A bigger head size increases the impingement-free range of motion and jumping distance of THA (Sariali et al. 2009).
Sariali E, Lazennec J Y, Khiami F, Catonne Y. Mathematical evaluation of jumping distance
in total hip arthroplasty: influence of abduction
angle, femoral head offset, and head diameter. Acta Orthop. 2009;80:277282.
17. Answer E. Revision arthroplasty
All the options are valid in managing the infected joint replacement. Patients not sufficiently fit to do well with further significant or poten tially multiple procedures can be managed with culture-specific, long-term suppressive antibiot­ics or an excision arthroplasty, if the infection is not able to be suppressed or the patient is unable to take long-term antibiotics.
The success rates of DAIR (debridement, anti-
biotics, and implant retention) procedures vary enormously in the literature, from 11–100%.
The success rate is correlated with type of organism (Streptococcus species tend to do better), exchange of modular components and time from procedure in early infection, or time from first presentation of symptoms in late infection.
An older patient with long duration of symp­toms is less likely to have successful infection eradication with a DAIR so may be best served with a one- or two-stage revision procedure depending upon the infecting organism and the surgeons preference.
Grammatopoulos G et al. Outcome following debridement, antibiotics, and implant retention in hip periprosthetic joint infection – an 18-year experience. J Arthroplasty 2017;32:2248–2255.
Kunutsor SK, Beswick AD, Whitehouse MR, Wylde V, Blom AW. Debridement, antibiotics
and implant retention for periprosthetic joint infections: a systematic review and meta-analysis of treatment outcomes. JInfect.2018;77:479–488.
18. Answer E. Three 1 500cGy radiotherapy doses
Heterotopic ossification (HO) following THA occurs with an incidence of 5–90% and is associ­ated with the risk factors of male sex, history of previous HO, older age, previous hip fusion, hypertrophic OA, ankylosing spondylitis, post­traumatic OA, Pagets disease, osteonecrosis, and rheumatoid arthritis.
It is classified according to the Brooker clas­sification according to the extent of heterotopic bone formation on an AP radiograph.
Prophylaxis can be considered for patients at high risk of HO and the main forms are
38
Hip I Structured SBA
radiotherapy and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). Diphosphonates have not been shown to be effective. NSAIDs would be contra­indicated in a patient with severe inflammatory bowel disease. Multiple doses of radiation therapy havebeenshowntobemoreeffectivethansingle doses.
Board TN, Karva A, Board RE, Gambhir AK,
Porter ML. The prophylaxis and treatment of het-
erotopic ossification following lower limb arthro­plasty. J Bone Joint Surg Br.2007;89:434–440.
19. Answer D. Tonnis angle
The following are measured during the radio­graphic assessment of patients with symptoms of femoroacetabular impingement:
The Tonnis angle (also called the acetabular index or acetabular roof angle) is the angle between the horizontal and a tangential line from the medial to the lateral sourcil (weight bearing zone of the acetabulum).
Alpha angle is measured on a Dunn view by drawing a line from the centre of the narrowest point of the femoral neck to the centre of the femoral head using a best-fit circle. The angle is between the line down the axis of the femoral neck and a line drawn to the location where the femoral head becomes out of round.
The lateral centre edge angle (of Wiberg) is the angle betw een a line drawn from the centre of the femoral head to the lateral edge of the acet­abulum and a second line that is parallel to the longitudinal pelvic axis.
Sharps angle, or acetabular angle, is the angle between a horizontal line drawn throug h the teardrops and a line drawn from the teardrop to the lateral acetabular roof.
The vertical centre edgeangle is measured from a false profile radiograph and is between a vertical line through the centre of the femoral head and a line from the centre of the femoral head to the anterior-most point on the acetabulum.
Mannava S et al. Comprehensive clinical evaluation of femoroacetabular impingement: part 2, plain radiography. Arthrosc Tech. 2017;6: e2003–e2009.
20. Answer C. Phelps test
Phelps test assesses gracilis tightness. Elystest assesses rectus femoris tightness. Obers test assesses
tightness of the tensor fascia lata. Thomastest assesses fixed flexion of the hip. Trendelenburg test assesses hip abductor dysfunction.
21. Answer C. Flexion to 90°, adduction, in-line traction, then internal rotation
Leadbetter described a technique in 1939 to aid in the reduction of intracapsular neck of femur fractures. The limb is flexed to relax the muscu­lature around the hip and then internal rotation functions to relax the ligamentous structures. From the above position, further flexion and adduction open the fracture, allowing reduction to be achieved by maintaining traction while bringing the limb into extension with slight abduction and continued internal rotation.
22. Answer A. Excessive anteversion The Hartofilakidis classification recognises three types of congenital hip disease in adults: type A – dysplasia, type B – low dislocation, and type C – high dislocation. In type A disease, the femoral head remains within the original acetabulum. In type B, it articulates with a false acetabulum which partially covers the original acetabulum. In type C, the femoral head has migrated superiorly and posteriorly to the hypoplastic original acetabulum. Adult hip dysplasia is most commonly associated with excessive femoral anteversion.
23. Answer A. Ceramic on ceramic Figure 3.4 (see Questions section) represents the scratch profile of ceramic.
Revision surgery for fractured or damaged cer­amic components requires thorough debridement and removal of ceramic fragments. Revision with metal heads should be avoided and ceramic com­ponents used wherever possible. Trunnions that are damaged need to be replaced, but if only minimal damage exists; then a ceramic head with a titanium liner or trunnion adapter can be used.
Rambani R et al. Revision total hip arthro­plasty for fractured ceramic bearings: a review of best practices fo r revision cases. J Arthroplasty 2017;32:1959–
24. Answer E. Otto pelvis
Otto pelvis (arthrokatadysis or protrusio aceta­buli) is a rare condition associated with hip osteoarthritis. Protrusio acetabuli is defined
1964.
39
Edward Holloway
radiographically when the medial aspect of the femoral head projects beyond the ilioischial (Kohlers) line. Though sometimes idiopathic, acetabular protrusion is more usually associated with inflammatory arthropathies, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, and Pagets disease. When per­forming THR, care must be taken to lateralise the medialised hip centre.
25. Answer A. Book for emergency surgery
Nerve dysfunction following THR may be a result of intraoperative compression from retractors, traction injury secondary to manipulation or lengthening.
If noted in the immediate postoperative period, tension can be taken off the sciatic nerve by nursing the patient with the knee in flexion.
Progressive, painful sciatic nerve dysfunction should raise the suspicion of compression from haematoma. This is associated with patients of lower mass, and with anticoagulant use. Improved outcomes are associated with prompt exploration and evacuation of haematoma.
Butt AJ, McCarthy T, Kelly IP, Glynn T, McCoy G. Sciatic nerve palsy secondary to post-
operative haematoma in primary total hip replace­ment. J Bone Joint Surg Br.2005;87:1465–1467.
Su EP. Post-operative neuropathy after total hip arthroplasty. Bone Joint J. 2017;99-B(Suppl.
1):46–49.
26. Answer B. 125° versus 135° neck–shaft angle implant
A longer femoral head length and incomplete inser­tion of an uncemented femoral stem will lengthen the patient. A larger sized femoral stem or increased offset stem will not generally change leg length.
27. Answer: D. Staphylococcus aureus
Outcomes of DAIR procedures are dictated by many surgical and patient factors. Unsurprisingly, age, frailty, immunity, diabetes, and nutritional status are all associated with chances of a successful DAIR procedure. Paramount to success are a radical debridement and exchange of modular components (to reduce biofilm and remove the fibrin layer between components that supports infection). Most studies suggest a lower chance of infection eradication with staphylococcal, and especially MRSA, infection.
Staphylococcus aureus or coagulase-negative staphylococci (CNS) are the most common causative pathogens of PJI, accounting for approximately two-thirds of all cases. Despite gradually improving success rates for DNIR over the years, the reported outcome of staphylococcal PJI is still heterogeneous, ranging from 23–90%.
Coagulase-negative staphylococci (CoNS) such as S. epidermidis can be divided into methicillin-resistant coagulase-negative staphylo­cocci (MRSE) and methicillin-susceptible coagu­lase-negative staphylococci (MSSE).
Scheper H et al. in a meta-analysis on the success rates with DNIR for PJI reported consid­erably better results for hip and coagulase nega­tive staphylococci (CNS) PJI than for knee and S. aureus PJI. Success rates of MRSA and MSSA PJI after DAIR were similar.
Coagulase-negative staphylococcus bacteria represent a concerning cohort of increasingly common and decr easingly treatment-susceptible pathogens in PJI. Both biofilm production and avidity towards antibiotic resistance acquisition enhance the virulence of CNS.
Methicillin-resistance is not decisive for viru­lence, but methicillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA) strains often express a higher level of virulence factors that facilitate their survival and spread.
In summary, literature is confusing and often non-committal. The approach shared by many PJI revision groups, is to go for a DAIR ASAP whenever they are confident that they are dealing with an acute PJI, regardless of the pathogen. A speedy response combined with the experience of the surgeon per­forming the DAIR and a good MDT support are probably more important factors when it comes to achieving a successful outcome than the pathogen.
Xu Y, Wang L, Xu W. Risk factors affect success rate of debridement, antibiotics and implant retention (DAIR) in periprosthetic joint infection. Arthroplasty 2020;2:37.
Scheper H et al. Outcome of debridement, antibiotics, and implant retention for staphylococ­cal hip andknee prosthetic joint infections, focused on rifampicin use: a systematic review and meta­analysis. Open Forum Infect Dis.2021;8(7).
Hays MR et al. Increased incidence of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus in knee and hip prosthetic joint infection. J Arthroplasty 2023;38(6S):S326S330.
40
Hip I Structured SBA
28. Answer: D. Benchmark revision rate less than 1 in 20 at 10 years
ODEP (Orthopaedic Data Evaluation Panel) is an independent group of clinical and non-clinical experts who invite implant manufacturers to supply data regarding their implants. The data are assessed and an ODEP rating is awarded (or not). The number, 3, 5, 7, 10 (full compliance with NICE benchmark), 13 or 15, signifies the number of years of data available. Asignifies strong evidence, Bacceptable strength of evi­dence. A *is awarded for an implant revision rate of less than 1 in 20 (5%) at 10 years. The Beyond Compliance initiative is a post-market surveillance service supported by ODEP. Implants registered with The National Joint Registry and being evalu­ated through Beyond Compliance are recognised with the rating ‘Pre-entry A*’.
29. Answer B. Elevated ESR (serum) The 2018 criteria are a development of the 2011 definitions and have higher sensitivity (97.7%) and specificity (99.5%) for the diagnosi s of peri­prosthetic joint infection. A diagnosis is made either with one major criterion being met (two positive cultures of the same organism, or a sinus tract with evidence of communication to the joint or visualisation of the prosthesis), or a score of equal or greater than 6 from minor criteria. An elevated CRP or D-dimer (serum) scores 2, an elevated ESR (serum) scores only 1, an ele­vated synovial PMN (%) (synovial) scores 2, an elevated synovial WBC count or LE (Leucocyte esterase) (synovial) sco res 3, and a positive alpha­defensin (synovial) scores 3.
Parvizi J et al. The 2018 definition of peri-
prosthetic hip and knee infection: an evidence­based and validated criteria. J Arthroplasty 2018;33:1309–1314.e2.
30. Answer B. 2. Core decompression is a treatment option for AVN of the femoral head before subchondral collapse has occurred. Steinberg (a modification of the Ficat classification) stage 3 is defined by the radiographic Crescent Sign, indicating sub­chondral collapse.
Chughtai M et al. An evidence-based guide
to the treatment of osteonecrosis of the femoral head. Bone Joint J. 2017;99-B(10):1267–1279.
31. Answer A. Iatrogenic injury
Intra-prosthetic dislocation is a complication unique to dual mobility (DM) designs where the larger diameter polyethylene bearing becomes detached from the smaller diameter metal or ceramic bearing: the most common cause is likely to be iatrogenic, when closed reduction of a dislocated dual mobility THR is attempted, and the outer bearing is levered off the acetabular component dislocat­ing it from the inner bearing: the so-called bottle-openereffect. Modular DM implants maybemorepronetofailurethrough other mechanisms. Non-highly crosslinked polyethylene bear ings are more prone to later intra-prosthetic dislocation. Skirted heads and smaller diameter heads are less likely to be associated with early intra-prosthetic dislocation.
De Martino I et al. Early intraprosthetic dis-
location in dual-mobility implants: a systematic review. Arthroplasty Today 2017;3:197–202.
32. Answer D. Multiple emboli
Bone Cement Implantation Syndrome (BCIS) is a rare, potentially fatal, complication of surgery using bone cement. Its aetiology is incompletely understood and likely to be multi-factorial. The m ost likely causative mech­anism is the creation of emboli of marrow, bone, cement, air, platelet-aggregates, due to the high intra-medullary pressures generated whilst cementing, and especially, inserting the prosthesis. These emboli have mechanical and mediator induced effects.
Hines CB. Understanding bone cement implant-
ation syndrome. AANA J. 2018;
33. Answer: C Hydrogen peroxide
There is no clear evidence to support the use of one irrigation solution over another. These solutions may be effective in breaking down bio­film in established infection and preventing infection in primary joint replacements by redu­cing bacterial burden prior to wound closure. One ml of hydrogen peroxide produces 10 ml of oxygen, and there have been reports of fatal complications relating to air emboli when used in enclosed anatomical spaces, such as the fem­oral canal.
86:433–441.
41
Edward Holloway
Christopher ZK., Deckey DG., Pollock JR,
Spangehl MJ. Antiseptic irrigation solutions
used in total joint arthroplasty: a critical analy­sis review. JBJS Rev. 2022;10(3):10.2106/ JBJS.RVW.21.00225.
34. Answer B. Long, fully coated uncemented stem
The radiograph shows a loose femoral stem with extensive metaphyseal bone loss and more than 4cm of intact diaphysis. This could be classified as Paposky Type 3A. The most suit­able revision would be to a long uncemented, extensively coated stem that could be modular or non-modular. A cement-in-cement revision would require an intact proximal cement-bone interface. A primary cemented stem would require an intact metaphysis. A proximal femur replacement would be more suitable for 3B and 4 defects. Removal of cement and a long­cemented stem is associated with less favour­able outcomes.
Suleiman LI, Erivan R, Paprosky WG.
Classifying femoral bone deficiency: picking the right tool for the job. Semin. Arthroplasty 2018;29:172–176.
35. Answer A. Debridement, antibiotics, and implant retention
Debridement, antibiotics, and implant retention is an established treatment for infections in pri­mary joint replacements, but also has similar indications in revision arthroplasties. One would expect a lower chance of success in infection eradication compared with that in a primary hip or knee replacement. Factors associated with worse outcomes are delays to DAIR from start of symptoms, multiple DAIRs, antibiotic mismatch.
Veerman K, Raessens J, Telgt D, Smulders
K, Goosen JHM. Debridement, antibiotics, and
implant retention after revision arthroplasty: antibiotic mismatch, timing, and repeated DAIR associated with poor outcome. Bone Joint J. 2022;104-B(4):464471.
36. Answer E. Phelps
Phelps test evaluates for tightness in the graci lis muscle (adductor). The patient lies supine and the affected hip is abducted as far as possible. The knee is then flexed over the side of the couch. If more abduction is possible by flexing the knee (and relaxing the gracilis) then this signifies that the gracilis is tight.
Bryant described an anatomical triangle useful
in the assessment of limb length inequality.
Ely described a test for rectus femoris tight­ness. Passive flexion of the knee in the presence of a tight rectus femoris leads to ipsilateral but­tock rising.
Ober described a test for contracture of the fascia lata or iliotibial band. The patient lies on the unaffected side. The affected hip is flexed and abducted 45°. This hip is then slow ly extended. Normally in bringing the hip into extension, it will be possible to adduct the hip to the midline. In the presence of a tight iliotibial band, the leg remains abducted.
Patrick described a test to distinguish between pain originating from the sacroiliac joint versus the posterior hip. The patient lies supine while placing the ipsilateral foot on the contralateral knee – the figure of four position. The examiner places one hand on the flexed knee and the other on the ASIS of the contralateral side and presses gently downwards on the flexed knee.
42
Section 2
Chapter
3
Adult Elective Orthopaedics and Spine
Hip I Structured SBA
Edward Holloway
HIP I STRUCTURED SBA QUESTIONS
1. An imaging report refers to a pathological avul­sion at the insertion of the Iliopsoas tendon.
What Gruen zone does this correspond to?
A. Zone 1 B. Zone 2 C. Zone 4 D. Zone 6 E. Zone 7
2. A patient with painful osteoarthritis of their hip
underwent femoral nailing, for a mid diaphyseal fracture 15 years previously. Their surgeon plans to perform hip replacement surgery while keep­ing the nail in place.
What is the most suitable type of patient for this procedure?
A. Large BMI >35 female over 65 years B. Large BMI >35 male over 65 years C. Large BMI >35 male under 65 years D. Low BMI female under 65 years E. Low BMI male under 65 years
3. A nerve is damaged during the direct lateral hip
approach when muscles are inadvertently split more than 5cm proximal to the greater trochanter.
Asking the patient to perform which of the following movements is most likely to reveal a deficit?
A. Dorsiflex ankle B. Extend great toe C. Extend hip D. Extend knee E. Stand on one leg
4. A patient received a hip arthroplasty typically
reserved for younger patients with good femoral head bone stock which comprises approximately
3.5% of all hip arthroplasties .
What follow-up is recommended for an asymp­tomatic patient with an ODEP 10 or 10A* rated implant?
A. Annually, for as long as the device is
implanted
B. Annually for the first 5 years, two yearly to 10
years
C. Annually for the first 5 years, two yearly to 10
years and three after
D. First year, once at 7 years, and once at 10 years E. First year, once at 7 years, and three yearly
thereafter
5. You are consenting a 45-year-old patient with a Garden II neck of femur fracture for surgery.
What is the most common risk of this surgery?
A. Avascular necrosis B. Femoral nerve injury C. Leg length discrepancy D. Sciatic nerve injury E. Trendelenburg gait
6. A patient has a hip arthroplasty through an
approach that is designed to be soft tissue pre­serving and is sometimes performed utilising a fracture table.
The nerve most commonly at risk during this approach crosses, in the majority of patients, the lateral border of which muscle?
A. Rectus femoris B. Sartorius C. Tensor fascia lata D. Vastus intermedius E. Vastus lateralis
7. After inserting an uncemented cup, you carefully
define quadrants by drawing a line from the ASIS to the centre of the cup and a second line perpen­dicular to this. You turn your back and your regis­trar inserts a screw in the anterosuperior quadrant.
29
Edward Holloway
What structure is most at risk?
A. External iliac vessels B. Inferior gluteal nerve and vessels C. Internal pudendal nerve and vessels D. Obturator nerve and vessels E. Sciatic nerve
8. An audit of a departments THA complications
reveals a spike in intraoperative periprosthetic femoral fractures (IOPFF) equivalent to intrao­perative Vancouver Type A2.
Which factor is associated with the highest relative risk of this comp lication?
A. Age 41–49 years B. Cementless stem C. Female sex D. Paediatric disease E. Previous trauma
9. A 45-year-old welder with a history of steroid use
presents with groin pain and an MRI that shows a 20% area of femoral head collapse.
What is the most appropriate management?
A. Bisphosphonate infusion B. Core decompression C. Proximal femoral osteotomy D. Total hip arthroplast y E. Vascularised fibular graft
What is the most appropriate management?
A. Cemented dual mobility THA B. Cemented THA C. Two-hole DHS D. Uncemented dual mobility THA E. Uncemented THA
12. After thorough discussion, it is decided that the
best option for a 20-year-old manual labourer with post-traumatic hip OA is a fusion.
What is the most appropriate position of fusion?
A. 0° external rotation, 0° adduction, 5° flexion B. 5° external rotation, 5° adduction, 25° flexion C. 10° external rotation, 15°abduction, 25°flexion D. 15° external rotation, 0° abduction, 5° flexion E. 15° external rotation, 15° abduction, 5° flexion
13. A patient underwent a THA for a NOF fracture
while abroad on holiday. The patient was given strict rehabilitation instructions to avoid flexion beyond 90° and extreme internal rotation.
What structure was most likely to have been injured during the patients surgery?
A. Femoral nerve B. Lateral cutaneous nerve C. Pudendal nerve D. Sciatic nerve E. Superior gluteal nerve
10. An 80-year-old patient listed for a THA has had
previous lumbar spine surgery. Concerned about dislocation risk, you request sitting and standing lateral lumbar spine radiographs.
What is the name of the angle that is formed for a line passing from the centre of the S1 end plate and the centre of the segment between the two femoral heads (the bicoxofemoral axis), and the vertical?
A. APPt (anterior pelvic plane tilt) B. FPP (functional pelvic plane) C. PI (pelvic incidence) D. SPT (spinopelvic tilt) E. SS (sacral slope)
11. A 55-year-old patient with Parkinsonsdisease
presents with a Garden 4 neck of femur fracture. Radiographs show that the ratio of the inner canal diameter at the midportion of the lesser trochan­ter, divided by the diameter 10 cm distal is >0.75.
30
14. A 77-year-old man presents with an insidious onset of hip and anterior thigh pain 15 years after a total hip arthroplasty. He denies fever or systemic upset, and initial bloods show normal inflammatory markers. Figure 3.1 is an antero­posterior radiograph of the left hip.
Figure 3.1 Anteroposterior (AP) radiograph left hip
Hip I Structured SBA
You advise the patient that he should undergo revision surgery as he is at risk of what complication?
A. Dislocation B. Infection C. Periprosthetic acetabular fracture D. Periprosthetic femur fracture E. Pseudotumour formation
15. You review a patient following hip arthroscopy
and extensive debridement of a labral cyst. He has weakness of ankle dorsiflexion.
Injury has most likely occurred as a result of what?
A. Excessive traction at groin post B. Placement of anterior portal C. Placement of anterolateral portal D. Placement of distal anterolateral portal E. Placement of posterolateral portal
16. During intraoperative assessment for stability of
a THA you have implanted through a modified Hardinge approach, you notice that the hip is unstable in extension and external rotation.
What change will increase the primary arc of hip motion?
A. 20° versus 0° liner B. 36mm versus 32mm head C. High versus standard offset stem D. Lateralised versus standard liner E. Skirted head
17. A 70-year-old woman presents with a red,
swollen and painful area around the incision site of a T HR performed 8 weeks earlier. She has a CRP of 78, WCC of 16 and temperature of 37.4°C. Her other observations are unre­markable. She did not attend 6-week follow­up and says the wound has not stopped leaking since she left hospital.
What is the most appropriate management?
A. Aspiration and culture-specific long-term
antibiotic suppression
B. Debridement, anti biotics, implant retention
with exchange of modular components
C. Debridement, antibiotics, implant retention
with retention of modular components
D. Empiric antibiotics E. Revision arthroplasty
18. A 53-year-old man with severe ulcerative colitis
is referred for a THA. His pelvic X-ray shows Brooker grade 3 changes on the ipsilateral side replaced 4 years earlier.
Which of the following prophylactic treatments is most appropriate?
A. Diphosphonate 20mg/kg for 21 days B. Ibuprofen 400mg TDS for 4 weeks C. Indomethacin 25mg TDS for 6 weeks D. Single 2 500cGy radiotherapy dose E. Three 1 500cGy radiotherapy doses
19. A 23-year-old woman has been referred by her
physiotherapist with symptoms of hip impinge­ment. A radiograph of her left hip is shown here (Figure 3.2).
Figure 3.2 Anteroposterior (AP) radiograph left hip
What is marked on her radiograph?
A. Alpha angle B. Lateral centre edge angle C. Sharps angle D. Tonnis angle E. Vertical centre edge angle
20. A young man with cerebral palsy is referred with
hip pain. You want to examine for contracture in a muscle with an origin at the inferior pubic sym­physis and inferior pubic rami, which attaches to a point just posterior to the attachment of sartorius.
What is the most appropriate test?
A. Elys test B. Obers test C. Phelps test D. Thomastest E. Trendelenburg test
31
Edward Holloway
21. A 24-year-old woman falls while mountain biking and sustains the injury shown in this radiograph (Figure 3.3). In theatre, you struggle to reduce the fracture with in-line traction and rotation.
Figure 3.3 Anteroposterior (AP) radiograph left hip
What is the most appropriate next step?
A. Extension, abduction, in-line traction, then
external rotation
B. Fixation in best position achieved C. Flexion to 90°, adduction, in-line traction,
then internal rotation
D. Open reduction using a modified Smith-
Petersen approach
E. Total hip arthroplasty
22. A 30-year-old woman is referred for consideration
of THA. Her radiographs have been classified as a Type B using the Hartofilakidis classification.
What anatomical characteristic of the femur is most commonly associated with this?
A. Excessive anteversion B. Excessive femoral bow C. Excessive retroversion D. Excessive valgus E. Excessive varus
23. The diagram shown here represents the scratch
profile of a material used in THA femoral heads (Figure 3.4).
Figure 3.4 Scratch profile
If such a component fractures, what bearing couple should be used during revision surgery?
A. Ceramic on ceramic B. Ceramic on poly C. Metal on metal D. Metal on poly E. Oxinium on poly
24. A 45-year-old presents with symptoms of hip
impingement, and radiographs show the femoral head to be medial to Kohlers line.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acetabular retroversion B. Coxa magna C. Coxa valga D. Coxa vara E. Otto pelvis
25. A 60kg woman develops progressive pain and
numbness in the lateral calf with weakness of ankle dorsiflexion 48 hours after THA.
Which of the following is the most appropriate action?
A. Book for emergency surgery B. Nurse prone and review the following
morning
C. Nurse with knee in flexion and review the
following morning
D. Urgent MRI scan E. Withhold prophylactic LMWH
26. A surg eon admits a mistake was made during a
THA. The patient complains that their operated leg feels short.
What is most likely to have resulted in this?
A. +8mm versus 0mm femoral head B. 125° versus 135° neck-shaft angle implant C. High versus standard offset stem D. Incomplete insertion of an uncemented
stem
E. Size 4 rather than size 3 implant inserted
27. One of your patients 3 months post-THA is
aspirated because of signs of PJI.
What organism would be associated with the lowest chance of infection eradicat ion with a DAIR procedure?
A. Acinetobacter B. Coagulase negative Staphylococcus C. Corynebacterium D. Staphylococcus aureus E. Streptococcus
32
Hip I Structured SBA
28. You start a job as a Hip Consultant. Your clinical lead advises that you use an implant with a ODEP 10A* rating.
What does the * indicate?
A. Acceptable evidence B. Being evaluated through the Beyond
Compliance initiative
C. Benchmark revision rate less than 1 in 10 at
10 years
D. Benchmark revision rate less than 1 in 20 at
10 years
E. Strong evidence
29. You aspirate a THA that has become acutely
painful in a patient with systemic symptoms.
According to the 2018 Musculoskeletal Infection Society (MSIS) criteria for the diagnosis of peri­prosthetic joint infection, which of these find­ings carries least weight in making a diagnosis of infection?
A. Elevated CRP or D-dimer (serum) B. Elevated ESR (serum) C. Elevated synovial PMN (%) (synovial) D. Elevated synovial WBC count or LE (synovial) E. Positive alpha-defensin (synovial)
30. A well-read 38-year-old patient with AVN of his
hip asks you why you have not suggested a core­decompression procedure.
You explain that for this to be an option, his disease should not have progressed beyond which Steinberg stage?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5
fracture becomes severely hypoxic and hypoten­sive when the stem is inserted.
What is the most likely causative mechanism?
A. Anaphylaxis to antibiotic in the bone cement B. Complement activation C. Direct effect of exothermic D. Multiple emboli E. Vasodilatation caused by circulating methyl
methacrylate monomers
33. Whilst washing the femoral canal during a first stage revision for infection you are offered a choice of irri gation solutions.
Which would be least suitable?
A. Acetic acid B. Chlorhexidine C. Hydrogen peroxide D. Polyhexanide-betaine E. Povidone-iodine
34. This 69-year-old lady had a THA 20 years ago.
She presents with start-up pain in the thigh and groin. Her blood tests are unremarkable, and an aspiration is negative. Figure 3.5 is an anteropos­terior radiograph of her right hip.
Which approach to revision of the femoral component would be most appropriate?
Figure 3.5 Anteroposterior (AP) radiograph right hip
31. Early intra-prosthetic dislocation of dual mobility hip replacements is likely to be most commonly due to what?
A. Iatrogenic injury B. Modular designs C. Non-highly crosslinked polyethylene D. Skirted heads E. Smaller diameter inner bearings
32. A frail 88-year-old undergoing cemented hip
hemiarthroplasty for an intracapsular NOF
A. Cement-in-cemen t B. Long, fully coated uncemented stem C. Primary cemented stem
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