Section 1. Disaster medicine

1. Depending on the territorial distribution, the volume of financial damage, the number of affected people emergencies are divided into: 1) local 2) sublocal 3) regional 4) republican 5) transboundary 6) federal 7) interregional.

Possible answers:

1. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5;

2. 1, 2, 5, 6, 7;

3. 1, 3, 4, 5, 7;

4. 2, 3, 4, 5, 6;

5. 1, 2, 4, 5, 7.

2. The biological classification of natural disaster do not include:

Possible answers:

1. infectious human diseases;

2. infectious animal diseases;

3. infectious diseases of plants;

4. all of the above;

5. there is no right answer.

3. What emergencies are not typical for the territory of the Republic of Belarus:

Possible answers:

1. meteorological;

2. geological;

3. hydrological;

4. telluric and tectonic;

5. cosmic.

4. Environmental emergencies include:

Possible answers:

1. industrial accidents and catastrophes;

2. changes in the hydrosphere, biosphere, atmosphere, geosphere;

3. natural disruptions;

4. social upheaval;

5. mass diseases.

5. Factors that contribute to the appearance of man-made emergencies do not include:

Possible answers:

a) the production, storage, transportation of hazardous materials;

b) aging of equipment;

c) violation of safety;

d) poor training of staff;

e) socio-economic situation in the country.

6. Stages of development of emergency do not include:

Possible answers:

a) the accumulation of risk factors;

b) the systematization of risk factors;

c) induction of risk factors;

d) beginning, flowing and the growth;

e) attenuation.

7. Affecting factors of emergency does not include:

Possible answers:

a) mechanical impact;

b) temperature impact;

c) ionizing radiation;

d) psycho-emotional factor;

e) there is no correct answer.

8. The medical and tactical situation in the area of emergency is determined by the following factors: 1) the destruction of buildings and structures; 2) large number of sanitary losses and their complex structure; 3) The difficult socio-economic situation in the region at the time of a disaster; 4) losses among health personnel; 5) increasing psycho-emotional stress.

Possible answers:

a) 1, 2, 3, 4;

b) 1, 2, 4, 5;

c) 2, 3, 4, 5;

d) 1, 2, 3, 5;

e) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.

9. Highly toxic substances (HTS) – are:

Possible answers:

a) substances with high toxicity that can cause mass poisoning;

b) substances capable in certain conditions cause mass poisoning;

c) substances with high toxicity that can under certain conditions cause mass poisoning;

d) substances which have highly toxic metabolic products;

e) chemicals used in industry.

10. Chemically hazardous object (CHO) – are:

Possible answers:

a) social objects, on which can be spread highly toxic substances;

b) industrial enterprises using chemical substances and compounds in the manufacturing process;

c) industrial enterprises using highly toxic substances in the manufacturing process;

d) industrial enterprises on which can appear emergency situations;

e) all industrial enterprises.

11. The zone of chemical contamination includes: 1) territory of HTS flooding; 2) territory, suspected for HTS; 3) territory within which steam of HTS spreads; 4) territory close to the zone of disaster; 5) the territory of the chemically hazardous object.

Possible answers:

a) 1, 2;

b) 1, 3;

c) 2, 3;

d) 4, 5;

e) 5.

12. HTS by speed of onset of clinical effects can be:

Possible answers:

a) active and inactive;

b) fast active and slow active;

c) systemic toxic and asphyxiating;

d) organic or inorganic;

e) simple and complex.

13. Area affected by fast active HTS is characterized by: 1) a slow, gradual onset of persistent symptoms of intoxication; 2) the rapid development of clinical intoxication; 3) the sudden appearance of a large number of victims; 4) gradual increase in the number of victims.

Possible answers:

a) 1, 2;

b) 1, 3;

c) 2, 3;

d) 1, 4;

e) 2, 4.

14. Area affected by slow active HTS is characterized by: 1) a slow, gradual onset of persistent symptoms of intoxication; 2) the rapid development of clinical intoxication; 3) the sudden appearance of a large number of victims; 4) gradual increase in the number of victims.

Possible answers:

a) 1, 2;

b) 1, 3;

c) 2, 3;

d) 1, 4;

e) 2, 4.

15. List the features of medical and tactical situation in the area affected by fast active HTS: 1) necessary to provide health care in a very short period of time; 2) lack of time to assess the situation and adjust the action of medical units; 3) the need for the quick evacuation of casualties from the affected area; 4) possibility to assess the situation in detail; 5) the need to actively identify potential victims; 6) possibility to conduct detailed evacuation and transport triage.

Possible answers:

a) 1, 2, 4;

b) 1, 2, 3;

c) 4, 5, 6;

d) 1, 4, 5;

e) 2, 4, 6.

16. List the features of medical and tactical situation in the area affected by slow active HTS: 1) necessary to provide health care in a very short period of time; 2) lack of time to assess the situation and adjust the action of medical units; 3) the need for the quick evacuation of casualties from the affected area; 4) possibility to assess the situation in detail; 5) the need to actively identify potential victims; 6) possibility to conduct detailed evacuation and transport triage.

Possible answers:

a) 1, 2, 4;

b) 1, 2, 3;

c) 4, 5, 6;

d) 1, 4, 5;

e) 2, 4, 6.

17. List the features of the organization of medical care to victims during accident at chemically hazardous object (CHO): 1) the need for chemical protection measures; 2) the need for decontamination; 3) the need for final disinfection; 4) the need for medical assistance to large number of victims at the same time; 5) the maximum distance of medical units from the border of affected area for safety; 6) the minimum distance of medical units from the border of affected area for safety.

Possible answers:

a) 1, 2, 4, 5;

b) 1, 2, 4, 6;

c) 1, 2, 3, 4;

d) 1, 3, 4, 5;

e) 2, 3, 4, 6.

18. The radiation-hazardous objects (RHO) – are:

Possible answers:

1) industrial enterprises and other economic entities that use sources of ionizing radiation during their activity;

2) industrial enterprises and other economic entities producing radioactive substances;

3) industrial enterprises and other economic entities that use radioactive substances in medical practice;

4) industrial enterprises and other economic entities recycling and storing radioactive substances;

5) all industrial enterprises on which can appear emergency situation.

Possible answers:

a) 1, 2, 4, 5;

b) 1, 2, 3, 5;

c) 1, 2, 3, 4;

d) 1, 3, 4, 5;

e) 5.

19. List the factors that determine the level of radioactive contamination of area during radiation accidents:

1) activity of focal point (reactor); 2) the level of training of personnel; 3) the composition of the radiation emission; 4) coordinates of damaged reactor; 5) the dynamics of ejection of radioactive substances into the atmosphere.

Possible answers:

a) 1, 2, 4, 5;

b) 1, 2, 3, 4;

c) 2, 3, 4, 5;

d) 1, 3, 4, 5;

e) 1, 2, 3, 5.

20. Sanitary protection zone for radiation safety has a radius:

Possible answers:

a) 3 km;

b) 30 km;

c) 50 km;

d) 100 km;

e) 200 km.

21. Zone of possible dangerous pollution has a radius:

Possible answers:

a) 3 km;

b) 30 km;

c) 50 km;

d) 100 km;

e) 200 km.

22. Zone of observation has a radius:

Possible answers:

a) 3 km;

b) 30 km;

c) 50 km;

d) 100 km;

e) 200 km.

23. List the entry routes of the radioactive substances into the body during radioactive contamination of areas: 1) inhalation; 2) nutritional; 3) through the damaged skin; 4) through intact skin; 5) through the mucous membranes.

Possible answers:

a) 1, 2, 4, 5;

b) 1, 2, 3, 4;

c) 2, 3, 4, 5;

d) 1, 3, 4, 5;

e) 1, 2, 3, 5.

24. Who may not receive iodine (potassium iodide) for emergency prevention during radioactive accidents?

Possible answers:

a) adults after 60 years;

b) children up to 3 years;

c) pregnant women;

d) breastfed newborn babies

e) there is no correct answer.

25. After radioactive accidents controlled obligatory iodine prophylaxis must be conducted among population living within:

Possible answers:

a) 3-kilometer zone;

b) 30-kilometer zone;

c) 50-kilometer zone;

d) 100-kilometer zone;

e) 200-km zone.

26. People staying at the open places is limited, carried out sealing of residential and office rooms (seal doors and windows, turning off the ventilation systems), begins iodine prophylaxis, and ban usage of milk and leafy vegetables when the exposure dose higher than:

Possible answers:

a) 1 mR/hr;

b) 20 mR/hr;

c) 50 mR/hr;

d) 100 mR/hr;

e) 1000 mR/hr.

27. Points for collection of victims are deployed:

Possible answers:

a) far and downwind from chemically contaminated area;

b) near the area of chemical contamination on the windward side in uncontaminated place;

c) in the chemical contamination area on the windward side;

d) on the nearest hill;

d) without taking in consideration the wind direction and the distance from the zone of chemical contamination.

28. List the basic principles of the protection of population in case of emergencies: 1) early preparation for emergency situations; 2) differentiated approach to the event; 3) vaccination; 4) the complexity of the activities; 5) introduction of health-protective modes.

Possible answers:

a) 1, 2, 4;

b) 1, 2, 3;

c) 2, 3, 4;

d) 1, 3, 5;

e) 2, 3, 5.

29. The concept of early preparation for actions to protect the population in emergency situations may include: 1) accumulation of shelters fund; 2) carrying out of vaccination; 3) preparations for the evacuation of the population; 4) accumulation of personal protective equipment.

Possible answers:

a) 1, 2, 4;

b) 1, 2, 3;

c) 2, 3, 4;

d) 3, 4;

e) 2, 3, 4.

30. List the main ways of protection the population during emergency situations: 1) sheltering; 2) the introduction of health-protective regimes; 3) complex evacuation measures; 4) the use of personal protective equipment.

Possible answers:

a) 1, 2, 4;

b) 1, 2, 3;

c) 2, 3, 4;

d) 1, 3, 4;

e) 3, 4.

31. List the groups for dividing the population for conducting of differentiated evacuation measures: 1) workers and employees of categorized entities; 2) unemployed; 3) workers and employees of not categorized entities; 4) population unoccupied in the production and maintenance.

Possible answers:

a) 1, 2, 4;

b) 1, 2, 3;

c) 1, 3, 4;

d) 3, 4;

e) 2, 3, 4.

32. During the evacuation of medical institutions to the pre-planned areas in the first and foremost are evacuated:

Possible answers:

a) health services administration;

b) the formation of emergency medical services ("ambulance teams" and specialized healthcare teams);

c) transportable patients, staff and their families, property, medicines, food and water supplies;

d) non-transportable patients;

d) there is no correct answer.

33. Treatment-evacuation support is:

Possible answers:

a) the system of science-based activities for the full treatment of victims in the area of emergency;

b) the system of science-based measures to provide medical care to the victims, their treatment with simultaneous evacuation to the specialized hospitals to continue treatment until the final outcome;

c) the system of science-based measures for the evacuation of victims to the specialized hospitals to continue their treatment;

d) the system of science-based measures to provide medical care during the evacuation.

34. Organization of the medical-evacuation support is built as:

Possible answers:

a) single-stage system;

b) two-stage system;

c) three-stage system;

d) four-stage system;

e) five-stage system.

35. List the types of medical care at the pre-hospital stage: 1) first aid; 2) pre-doctor aid; 3) first doctor aid; 4) qualified aid; 5) specialized aid.

Possible answers:

a) 1, 2, 4;

b) 1, 2, 3;

c) 1, 3, 4;

d) 1, 3, 4;

e) 2, 3, 4.

36. First aid is provided by: 1) qualified health professional at hospital; 2) as a mutual aid or self-aid; 3) personnel of rescue units; 4) outside the emergency area by nursing teams; 5) members of sanitary teams.

Possible answers:

a) 1, 2, 4;

b) 1, 2, 3;

c) 2, 3, 4;

d) 1, 3, 4;

e) 2, 3, 5.

37. The main purpose of first aid:

Possible answers:

a) treatment of life-threatening complications until complete recovery;

b) rescue of victims’ life (elimination of the harmful effects and evacuation from the danger zone);

c) treatment of complications;

d) rapid evacuation of the victims to medical institutions to provide them medical care;

e) maximum recovery of lost functions of organs and systems and treatment until the final outcome, including rehabilitation.

38. Optimally allowable period of providing first aid to the victims:

Possible answers:

a) 30 minutes;

b) 1 hours;

c) 2 hours;

d) 3 hours;

e) 4-6 hours.

39. Optimally allowable period of providing pre-doctor aid to the victims:

Possible answers:

a) 30 minutes;

b) 1 hours;

c) 2 hours;

d) 3 hours;

e) 4-6 hours.

40. Optimally allowable period of providing first doctor aid to the victims:

Possible answers:

a) 30 minutes;

b) 1 hours;

c) 2 hours;

d) 3 hours;

e) 4-6 hours.

41. List the types of medical care at the hospital stage: 1) first aid; 2) pre-doctor aid; 3) first doctor aid; 4) qualified aid; 5) specialized aid.

Possible answers:

a) 1, 4;

b) 2, 4;

c) 3, 5;

d) 1, 5;

e) 4, 5.

42. Activities of qualified therapeutic aid, the implementation of which may be delayed: 1) antibiotics for preventive purposes; 2) introduction of antidotes and tetanus vaccine; 3) infusion of blood components; 4) the use of tranquilizers and antipsychotic drugs during acute reactive states; 5) use of symptomatic medications.

Possible answers:

a) 1, 3, 4;

b) 1, 2, 4;

c) 1, 3, 5;

d) 2, 3, 5;

e) 3, 4, 5.

43. The main purpose of the planned specialized care is:

Possible answers:

a) treatment of life-threatening complications until complete recovery;

b) rescue of victims’ life (elimination of the harmful effects and evacuation from the danger zone);

c) treatment of complications;

d) rapid evacuation of the victims to medical institutions to provide them medical care;

e) maximum recovery of lost functions of organs and systems and treatment until the final outcome, including rehabilitation.

44. Primary surgical debridement of hand wounds using microsurgical techniques is performed on stage:

Possible answers:

a) first aid;

b) pre-doctor aid;

c) first doctor aid;

d) qualified aid;

e) specialized aid.

45. Primary surgical debridement of soft tissue wounds is performed on stage:

Possible answers:

a) first aid;

b) pre-doctor aid;

c) first doctor aid;

d) qualified aid;

e) specialized aid.

46. The use of standard equipment for artificial lung ventilation («S»-shaped tube, combitube, manual breathing apparatus) is performed on stage:

Possible answers:

a) first aid;

b) pre-doctor aid;

c) first doctor aid;

d) qualified aid;

e) specialized aid.

47. Imposing of trocar epicystotomy for acute urinary retention is performed on stage:

Possible answers:

a) first aid;

b) pre-doctor aid;

c) first doctor aid;

d) qualified aid;

e) specialized aid.

48. Specify the types of triage: 1) medical; 2) interstate; 3) evacuation and transportation; 4) specialized; 5) all of the above.

Possible answers:

a) 1, 3;

b) 1, 2;

c) 1, 4;

d) 2, 3;

e) 5.

49. List the sorting signs for medical triage: 1) danger to others; 2) therapeutic indications; 3) time of the entry; 4) evacuation sign; 5) completeness of the activities performed in the previous stage.

Possible answers:

a) 1, 3, 4;

b) 2, 3, 5;

c) 1, 2, 3;

d) 2, 3, 4;

e) 1, 2, 4.

50. To provide first pre-doctor aid are:

Possible answers:

a) sanitary teams;

b) doctor's assistant teams;

c) doctor and nursing teams;

d) rescue units;

e) specialized brigades of permanent readiness.

51. To provide first doctor aid are:

Possible answers:

a) sanitary teams;

b) doctor's assistant teams;

c) doctor and nursing teams;

d) rescue units;

e) specialized brigades of permanent readiness.

52. To provide specialized aid are:

Possible answers:

a) sanitary teams;

b) doctor's assistant teams;

c) doctor and nursing teams;

d) rescue units;

e) specialized brigades of permanent readiness.

53. Medical forces and resources of the first stage of care are deployed:

Possible answers:

a) in the safe part of emergency area;

b) on the boundary with emergency area, in the safe place;

c) at a distance of 10 km from the border of emergency area;

d) on the nearest high ground;

e) at any convenient location.

54. To provide qualified aid are:

Possible answers:

a) sanitary teams;

b) doctor's assistant teams;

c) doctors (surgeons, physicians, anesthetist) in hospitals;

d) rescue units;

e) specialized brigades of permanent readiness.

55. Forces and health care resources deployed at the medical evacuation routes for victim’s receiving, triage, providing certain types of care, to prepare them for further treatment and final evacuation are called:

Possible answers:

a) type of medical care;

b) medical evacuation point;

c) volume of medical care;

d) type of medical triage;

e) evacuation direction.

56. The list of therapeutic and preventive measures carried out for care lesions (wounds, injuries, diseases) by medical personnel at the border of emergency area and at the medical evacuation points is called:

Possible answers:

a) type of medical care;

b) medical evacuation point;

c) volume of medical care;

d) type of medical triage;

e) evacuation direction.

57. The volume of medical care can be:

Possible answers:

a) full and reduced;

b) primary and secondary;

c) prehospital and hospital;

d) qualified and specialized;

e) continuity and consistency.

58. Timely conducted anti-shock measures reduced mortality on:

Possible answers:

a) 25-30%;

b) 10-15%;

c) 75-100%;

d) 50-75%;

e) there is no correct answer.

59. In order to identify the causes and conditions of occurrence of infectious diseases with the subsequent justification of measures on localization and liquidation of epidemic focus is carried out:

Possible answers:

a) epidemiological investigation or reconnaissance;

b) epidemiological control;

c) epidemiological surveillance;

d) epidemiological examination;

e) all of the above.

60. Systematic obtaining of information about the state of public health in emergency area is called:

Possible answers:

a) epidemiological investigation or reconnaissance;

b) epidemiological control;

c) epidemiological surveillance;

d) epidemiological examination;

e) all of the above.

61. Sanitary and epidemiological state of emergency area considered safe if:

Possible answers:

a) no signs of infectious disease or have a place isolated unrelated cases that are typical for the area and for time of year;

b) there are isolated, not registered earlier cases of diseases not typical for the area and for time of year, without signs of epidemic;

c) there are group, related to each other cases of infectious diseases that tend to spread, or cases of highly infectious diseases (HID);

d) the whole territory of the emergency area is an epidemic hotbed or occurs group cases of HID;

e) there is control over unrelated outbreaks of infectious diseases.

62. Sanitary and epidemiological state of emergency area considered unstable if:

Possible answers:

a) no signs of infectious disease or have a place isolated unrelated cases that are typical for the area and for time of year;

b) there are isolated, not registered earlier cases of diseases not typical for the area and for time of year, without signs of epidemic;

c) there are group, related to each other cases of infectious diseases that tend to spread, or cases of highly infectious diseases (HID);

d) the whole territory of the emergency area is an epidemic hotbed or occurs group cases of HID;

e) there is control over unrelated outbreaks of infectious diseases.

63. Sanitary and epidemiological state of emergency area considered adverse if:

Possible answers:

a) no signs of infectious disease or have a place isolated unrelated cases that are typical for the area and for time of year;

b) there are isolated, not registered earlier cases of diseases not typical for the area and for time of year, without signs of epidemic;

c) there are group, related to each other cases of infectious diseases that tend to spread, or cases of highly infectious diseases (HID);

d) the whole territory of the emergency area is an epidemic hotbed or occurs group cases of HID;

e) there is control over unrelated outbreaks of infectious diseases.

64. The complex of anti-epidemic measures consist of the following types of regimen-restrictive measures: 1) observation; 2) insulation; 3) temporary hospitalization for dynamic monitoring; 4) quarantine; 5) intense medical surveillance.

Possible answers:

a) 1, 3, 4;

b) 1, 4, 5;

c) 1, 2, 3;

d) 2, 3, 4;

e) 1, 2, 4.

65. Complex of medical activities carried out in relation to population exposed to pathogens of infectious diseases, to prevent the development of infection is called:

Possible answers:

a) emergency treatment;

b) emergency prevention;

c) emergency care;

d) emergency diagnostics

e) emergency supervision.

66. Initial examination of the victim at the site of injury is performed:

Possible answer:

a) to establish a preliminary diagnosis;

b) to diagnose the life-threatening conditions at the time of examination;

c) to justify the priority of providing health care to the victim;

d) to determine the priority of evacuation;

e) to establish the forecast.

67. What state is the indication for cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)?

Possible answer:

a) anaphylactic shock;

b) clinical death;

c) terminal coma;

d) traumatic shock;

e) absence of consciousness.

68. The three main signs of clinical death: 1) absence of consciousness; 2) acrocyanosis; 3) absence of breath; 4) the absence of a pulse in the carotid arteries; 5) different diameter of the pupils.

Possible answer:

a) 1, 2, 3;

b) 1, 3, 4;

c) 2, 3, 5;

d) 1, 2, 5;

e) 3, 4, 5.

69. Technique “See-Hear-Sense” includes the following steps: 1) check for the respiratory movements of the chest and abdomen; 2) feel the breath (hear breath from the mouth of the victim); 3) check the integrity of the skin; 4) assess the condition of the pupils; 5) feel pulse at the carotid artery.

a) 1, 2, 3;

b) 1, 3, 4;

c) 2, 3, 5;

d) 1, 2, 5;

e) 3, 4, 5.

70. Safar Triple maneuver – is a combination of: 1) extension of the head at the cervical spine; 2) carrying out of artificial respiration; 3) moving of the underjaw forward and upward; 4) opening of the mouth; 5) external cardiac massage.

Possible answer:

a) 1, 2, 3;

b) 1, 3, 4;

c) 2, 3, 5;

d) 1, 3, 5;

e) 3, 4, 5.

71. During the artificial lung ventilation (ALV) in the adult person minimum required volume of one passive inhalation is:

Possible answers:

a) 100 ml;

b) 5000 ml;

c) 500 ml;

d) 2000ml;

e) 1000 ml.

72. Precardiac thrust must not be performed: 1) in the presence of a pulse in the carotid arteries; 2) in the absence of a pulse in the carotid arteries; 3) in children; 4) in adults over 50 years; 5) during sudden cardiac arrest (electrical accident).

Possible answer:

a) 1, 2;

b) 1, 3;

c) 2, 4;

d) 1, 5;

e) 4, 5.

73. To conduct cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) most appropriate ratio of chest compressions (CC) and ventilations (V) (CC:V):

Possible answer:

a) 5:1;

b) 15:2;

c) 30:2;

d) 1:2;

e) 2:5.

74. The criteria of adequately conducted external cardiac massage are: 1) appearance of the pulse in the carotid and femoral arteries with every push; 2) restoration of passability of the upper respiratory tract; 3) pulse waves on a monitor at every push; 4) pupillary constriction (if they were expanded); 5) dilation of the pupils.

Possible answer:

a) 1, 4;

b) 1, 3;

c) 2, 4;

d) 1, 5;

e) 2 5.

75. During deciding about transportation of the patient to the hospital the doctor should obtain answers to the following questions: 1) what is the route of ambulance; 2) what transport conditions are necessary for this state of the victim; 3) who must accompany victim during transportation; 4) what medicinal manipulations should be continued during transportation of the victim; 5) what is the chance of death.

Possible answer:

a) 1, 4;

b) 2, 4;

c) 2, 3;

d) 1, 5;

e) 2 5.